A client is to receive an intravenous dose of adenosine. What immediate response to this medication should the nurse expect?

Run of premature ventricular beats.

Short period of asystole.

Brief seizure episode.

Dramatic increase in blood pressure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Run of premature ventricular beats: While adenosine can occasionally provoke brief ventricular ectopy, this is not its primary or most expected effect. Premature ventricular contractions may occur transiently but are not the hallmark response to this medication.

B. Short period of asystole: Adenosine briefly blocks AV node conduction and can interrupt re-entry pathways, often resulting in a short period of asystole lasting a few seconds. This is an expected effect and reflects the drug’s mechanism in terminating supraventricular tachycardia by interrupting the reentrant pathway.

C. Brief seizure episode: Adenosine does not typically cause seizures. It acts primarily on cardiac tissue and has no significant pro-convulsant effects. A seizure would be an atypical and concerning adverse reaction rather than an expected response.

D. Dramatic increase in blood pressure: Adenosine causes transient vasodilation and may lead to a brief drop in blood pressure or flushing. A dramatic increase in blood pressure would not be expected and could suggest an alternate diagnosis or drug reaction.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. ambulate in the hall 3 times daily without shortness of breath: This directly reflects improved tolerance to activity, the central focus of the nursing diagnosis. Being able to ambulate without dyspnea indicates better cardiac output and ventricular function, marking resolution of the identified problem.

B. have an increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg during activity: A rise in systolic pressure may occur with exertion, but it does not necessarily indicate improved activity tolerance. In fact, an exaggerated BP response could indicate the heart is working harder than it should to meet the demands, suggesting poor cardiovascular adaptation to exercise.

C. decrease weight from 150 lbs. (68.2 kg.) to 148 lbs. (67.3 kg.) in five days: A slight weight reduction may reflect decreased fluid retention, but this outcome is more relevant to volume status and fluid balance than to resolving activity intolerance specifically.

D. verbalize the signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure by discharge:
While important for client education and self-management, this outcome relates to knowledge rather than physical tolerance to activity. It does not directly measure resolution of activity intolerance.

A. A 60 year old woman with cardiac dysrhythmias post myocardial infarction. Her HR is 39 & irregular, BP 147/65 B. A 55-year-old woman with HTN due to renal failure from chronic pyleonephritis. HR 92. BP 145/72 C. A 78-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia & cardiac dysfunction. He is in 3rd degree heart block. HR 42. BP 92/65 D. A 49-year-old male, BMI 36, history of type 2 diabetes & HTN. HR 105, BP 158/92

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A 60-year-old woman with cardiac dysrhythmias post myocardial infarction. Her HR is 39 & irregular, BP 147/65: Although her heart rate is low, carvedilol is commonly used post-MI to reduce mortality, especially in patients with dysrhythmias. However, caution is warranted, and dosage adjustments or withholding may be necessary due to bradycardia.

B. A 55-year-old woman with HTN due to renal failure from chronic pyelonephritis. HR 92. BP 145/72: This client has stable vitals, and carvedilol can be safely used to help manage hypertension. Renal impairment requires monitoring, but it is not a contraindication if renal function is closely followed.

C. A 78-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia & cardiac dysfunction. He is in 3rd degree heart block. HR 42. BP 92/65: Carvedilol is contraindicated in clients with 2nd or 3rd degree heart block without a functioning pacemaker. It can worsen bradycardia and conduction delays, making its use unsafe in this client without rhythm control support.

D. A 49-year-old male, BMI 36, history of type 2 diabetes & HTN. HR 105, BP 158/92: This client is hypertensive and tachycardic, both of which carvedilol can help manage. Although diabetes requires careful monitoring for hypoglycemia, there is no contraindication in this scenario.

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A client is to receive an intravenous dose of adenosine. What immediate response to this medication should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A client is to receive an intravenous dose of adenosine. What immediate response to this medication should the nurse expect?