The nurse understands that chest pain related to pericarditis is classically relieved by
gabapentin & acetaminophen
extended release opioids
sitting & leaning forward
supine with head of bed 15 degrees
The Correct Answer is C
A. gabapentin & acetaminophen: While acetaminophen may help with pain relief, gabapentin is primarily used for neuropathic pain and not effective for the inflammatory chest pain associated with pericarditis. These medications do not address the positional nature of pericardial pain.
B. extended release opioids: Opioids may provide general pain relief but are not the standard treatment for pericarditis-related pain. They do not address the inflammatory cause and carry risks of sedation and respiratory depression without improving cardiac inflammation.
C. sitting & leaning forward: Pericarditis pain is classically relieved by having the patient sit up and lean forward. This position reduces pressure on the pericardium and decreases pain by allowing the inflamed pericardial layers to separate slightly, reducing friction.
D. supine with head of bed 15 degrees: Lying flat or even slightly elevated can worsen pericarditis pain because it increases pressure on the inflamed pericardium. Patients often report increased discomfort in the supine position, making it less favorable for symptom relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dehydration: The elevated hemoglobin (17 g/dL) and hematocrit (54%), along with an increased BUN (28 mg/dL) and normal creatinine, suggest hemoconcentration, a key indicator of dehydration. Small bowel obstruction often leads to fluid loss through vomiting and third spacing into the bowel, contributing to this condition.
B. Infection: The WBC count is normal at 8.5, which does not support an active infection. Infections typically result in leukocytosis (WBC >10.5), especially in acute abdominal conditions.
C. Renal insufficiency: Although BUN is elevated, creatinine remains normal (1.1 mg/dL). This pattern, particularly with hemoconcentration, supports pre-renal azotemia due to dehydration, not intrinsic renal insufficiency.
D. Internal bleeding: Internal bleeding typically causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit due to blood loss. The elevated values in this case rule out active bleeding and instead indicate fluid volume deficit.
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
A. contact the prescriber to decrease the rate of the D51/2NS during the blood transfusion: There's no need to alter the rate of maintenance fluids unless there's a fluid volume concern. Additionally, decreasing the rate would not address the need for a dedicated blood transfusion line if another lumen is available.
B. stop the D51/2NS, check the client's vitals & notify the prescriber: Stopping necessary fluids without cause may compromise fluid balance. Unless there's a compatibility issue or no other lumen, stopping the infusion is not the safest or most efficient action.
C. Fluids cannot be given through a CVC: Central venous catheters are routinely used for administering fluids, medications, and blood products, especially in critical care settings.
D. Insert a 22 gauge peripheral IV to administer the transfusion: While blood can be given through a peripheral IV, using an existing central venous catheter is safer and more efficient, especially when multiple lumens are available. Inserting a new IV unnecessarily increases infection and complication risks.
E. transfuse the unit of packed red blood cells through a separate lumen of the CVC: This is the safest and most appropriate action. Triple-lumen CVCs allow for simultaneous infusions through separate channels without mixing. Blood should be transfused through a dedicated lumen to avoid incompatibility or dilution by other fluids.
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