A client is to receive LR 1000 ml over 8 hours. The IV tubing drop rate is 60 gtts/ml. What is the correct rate (gtts/min)? DOCUMENT ANSWER AS: RATE gtts/min (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["125"]
Calculate the total volume to be infused in drops.
Total drops = Total volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtts/mL)
= 1000 mL × 60 gtts/mL
= 60000 gtts
Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
Total infusion time (minutes) = Total hours × 60 minutes/hour
= 8 hours × 60 minutes/hour
= 480 minutes
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtts/min).
IV rate (gtts/min) = Total drops / Total infusion time (minutes)
= 60000 gtts / 480 minutes
= 125
=125 gtts/min
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer an antidiarrheal medication: Atropine is an anticholinergic agent that reduces gastrointestinal motility, often leading to constipation rather than diarrhea. Administering an antidiarrheal would not be appropriate and could cause harmful effects if unnecessary.
B. Assess the pupils for constriction: Atropine causes pupil dilation (mydriasis), not constriction. Checking for constriction would not align with the expected pharmacologic effects of the drug and is not a priority assessment after administration.
C. Provide frequent oral care: Atropine inhibits secretions as part of its anticholinergic effects, often leading to dry mouth (xerostomia). Frequent oral care helps maintain mucous membrane integrity and client comfort, making this an appropriate nursing action following administration.
D. Insert an indwelling catheter: Although atropine can cause urinary retention, especially in older adults, catheter insertion is not routinely required after administration; a single 0.5 mg IV dose is less likely to cause significant urinary retention requiring catheterization. It should only be considered if the client shows clinical signs of acute urinary retention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The TEE evaluates if emboli are present if cardioversion is required: A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) provides detailed imaging of the heart’s chambers, particularly the left atrium and left atrial appendage, where clots often form in atrial fibrillation. It is used to rule out thrombi before cardioversion to reduce the risk of stroke during the procedure.
B. The study will use electric current to stop the abnormal conduction pathway: This describes electrical cardioversion, not TEE. TEE is a diagnostic imaging procedure and does not involve the delivery of electrical currents to modify the heart's rhythm or conduction.
C. A TEE will help restore the client's underlying baseline normal rhythm: TEE does not treat arrhythmias. Its role is diagnostic—to visualize cardiac structures, not to restore normal rhythm. Cardioversion or pharmacologic agents are required to correct atrial fibrillation.
D. A TEE is required prior to implantable defibrillator placement in clients with atrial fibrillation: TEE is not routinely required before implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement. ICD decisions are usually based on ejection fraction, rhythm stability, and risk of sudden cardiac arrest, not the presence or absence of atrial thrombi.
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