The nurse is administering tamsulosin to a client. Which disease process should the nurse expect to find in the client's past medical history?
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Congestive Heart Failure
Rheumatic Fever
Coronary Artery Disease
The Correct Answer is A
A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker specifically prescribed to relieve urinary symptoms caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the bladder neck and prostate, improving urine flow and decreasing bladder outlet obstruction.
B. Congestive Heart Failure: Tamsulosin is not indicated for heart failure management. Medications used in heart failure typically include ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, diuretics, and aldosterone antagonists not selective alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin.
C. Rheumatic Fever: Rheumatic fever is linked to valvular heart disease, not urinary retention or prostate enlargement. Tamsulosin does not have a role in its treatment or management.
D. Coronary Artery Disease: Tamsulosin does not have any therapeutic effect in managing coronary artery disease. CAD is typically managed with medications such as beta blockers, statins, antiplatelets, and nitrates, depending on the clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Presence of fine tremors: Fine tremors are not a typical sign of worsening heart failure. They may be associated with medications (like bronchodilators or lithium), metabolic issues, or neurologic disorders, but not directly with heart failure decompensation.
B. Heart rate 50 per minute: Bradycardia may be notable, especially in the context of beta-blocker therapy, but a heart rate of 50 bpm in a stable patient is not necessarily a sign of worsening heart failure unless accompanied by symptoms like dizziness or hypotension.
C. +1 peripheral edema: Mild peripheral edema is often chronic and common in older adults with heart failure. It does not reliably indicate worsening status unless there is a significant increase in edema or associated weight gain and pulmonary symptoms.
D. Increased confusion: Older adults are more susceptible to changes in cognitive function due to decreased cardiac output in worsening heart failure. New or worsening confusion in older adults is a key sign of decreased cerebral perfusion and may signal worsening heart failure. It can also indicate hypoxia or electrolyte imbalance, making it a critical finding that warrants immediate evaluation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hypermagnesemia: Hypermagnesemia (high magnesium levels) can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and prolonged PR and QRS intervals. While it can affect cardiac rhythm, it's less commonly associated with PVCs. The client's magnesium level of 2.5 mg/dL is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mg/dL).
B. Hypocalcemia: While the calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is slightly low (normal: ~8.5–10.5 mg/dL), mild hypocalcemia is less commonly associated with PVCs compared to hypokalemia. It can affect cardiac contractility but is not the most likely cause of these arrhythmias.
C. Hypokalemia: The potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L, which is significantly below normal (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L). Potassium is a crucial electrolyte for maintaining normal cardiac electrical activity. Hypokalemia increases myocardial excitability and can lead to various cardiac dysrhythmias and a known cause of ventricular irritability, including multifocal PVCs, and increases the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias in clients with cardiac or metabolic conditions.
D. Hyperglycemia: The glucose level of 200 mg/dL is elevated but not severely high. While it reflects poor glycemic control, it is not directly linked to the occurrence of PVCs. Electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium, are more arrhythmogenic.
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