A client is admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a rate between 120's-130's. IV heparin therapy is prescribed. In addition, the nurse prepares the client for a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE). What does the nurse understand about this diagnostic study?

The TEE evaluates if emboli are present if cardioversion is required

The study will use electric current to stop the abnormal conduction pathway

A TEE will help restore the client's underlying baseline normal rhythm,

A TEE is required prior to implantable defibrillator placement in clients with atrial fibrillation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The TEE evaluates if emboli are present if cardioversion is required: A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) provides detailed imaging of the heart’s chambers, particularly the left atrium and left atrial appendage, where clots often form in atrial fibrillation. It is used to rule out thrombi before cardioversion to reduce the risk of stroke during the procedure.

B. The study will use electric current to stop the abnormal conduction pathway: This describes electrical cardioversion, not TEE. TEE is a diagnostic imaging procedure and does not involve the delivery of electrical currents to modify the heart's rhythm or conduction.

C. A TEE will help restore the client's underlying baseline normal rhythm: TEE does not treat arrhythmias. Its role is diagnostic—to visualize cardiac structures, not to restore normal rhythm. Cardioversion or pharmacologic agents are required to correct atrial fibrillation.

D. A TEE is required prior to implantable defibrillator placement in clients with atrial fibrillation: TEE is not routinely required before implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement. ICD decisions are usually based on ejection fraction, rhythm stability, and risk of sudden cardiac arrest, not the presence or absence of atrial thrombi.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. vegetative embolization to the kidneys: Infective endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Vegetations (clumps of bacteria, fibrin, and platelets) can form on the damaged heart structures. These vegetations are fragile and can break off, forming emboli that travel through the bloodstream to various organs. Embolization to the kidneys can cause renal infarction, leading to sharp flank pain due to ischemia or infarction of kidney tissue and hematuria.

B. hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms: While some bacteria can cause hemolysis, it is not typically associated with localized flank pain. Hemolysis would present with systemic signs such as jaundice, fatigue, and anemia, not acute flank pain and visible hematuria.

C. septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow: Septicemia may impair renal perfusion over time but would more likely lead to generalized signs of acute kidney injury, such as oliguria and rising creatinine levels, rather than acute flank pain and hematuria.

D. bacterial infection in the kidneys: Acute pyelonephritis can cause flank pain and hematuria, but in the context of infective endocarditis, embolic events are a more likely and urgent explanation for new-onset symptoms, particularly sharp localized pain.

A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads. B. Place the client in Trendelenberg position. C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate. D. Administer a dose of atropine.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.

B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.

C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.

D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.

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WBC	8.5
Hemoglobin	17g/dL
Hematocrit	54%
BUN	28mg/dL
Creatinine	1.1 mg/dL
Potassium	4.9 mEq/L

A client is admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a rate between 120's-130's. IV heparin therapy is prescribed. In addition, the nurse prepares the client for a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE). What does the nurse understand about this diagnostic study?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client hospitalized with infective endocarditis develops sharp flank pain and hematuria. The nurse notifies the physician, recognizing that these clinical manifestations may indicate:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client in the coronary care unit is receiving a diltiazem infusion for atrial fibrillation. The nurse observes on the cardiac monitor that the client's heart rate has converted to sinus bradycardia at a rate of 50 beats/minute. Which nursing action should be performed first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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