A client on the inpatient psychiatric unit is scheduled for discharge tomorrow. Which of the following statements would indicate that the client is ready for discharge?

“I am glad I’m getting out of here. I shouldn’t be here anyway.”

“I know I’m ready to go. I’ve got everything under control.”

“I have a list of my medications and have made an appointment with my doctor.”

“I just can’t get rid of these thoughts about dying.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is c.

Choice A Reason:

The statement “I am glad I’m getting out of here. I shouldn’t be here anyway.” indicates a lack of insight into the need for treatment and does not demonstrate readiness for discharge. Clients who are ready for discharge typically acknowledge their condition and the importance of ongoing care. This statement suggests denial or minimization of the issues that led to hospitalization, which can be a barrier to successful discharge and continued recovery1.

Choice B Reason:

The statement “I know I’m ready to go. I’ve got everything under control.” can be misleading. While it may seem positive, it lacks specific details about the client’s discharge plan and follow-up care. Readiness for discharge involves more than just feeling ready; it requires a concrete plan for managing medications, follow-up appointments, and support systems. Without these details, the statement does not fully indicate readiness for discharge.

Choice C Reason:

The statement “I have a list of my medications and have made an appointment with my doctor.” is correct. This statement demonstrates that the client has a clear understanding of their medication regimen and has taken proactive steps to ensure continuity of care after discharge. Having a follow-up appointment scheduled is a critical component of discharge planning, as it helps ensure that the client will continue to receive necessary support and monitoring. This level of preparation indicates that the client is ready for discharge.

Choice D Reason:

The statement “I just can’t get rid of these thoughts about dying.” is a serious concern and indicates that the client is not ready for discharge. Persistent thoughts of dying or suicidal ideation require immediate attention and intervention. Discharging a client with these thoughts would be unsafe and could lead to severe consequences. The client needs further evaluation and treatment to address these thoughts before being considered for discharge.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines like diazepam. It works by competitively inhibiting the action of benzodiazepines at the GABA receptor, thereby reversing sedation and other effects. Flumazenil is typically administered in cases of benzodiazepine overdose to counteract the sedative effects and restore normal respiratory function. However, it should be used cautiously as it can precipitate withdrawal and seizures in patients with long-term benzodiazepine use.

Choice B Reason:

Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It is not indicated for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Chlorpromazine works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to manage symptoms of psychosis but does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.

Choice C Reason:

Lithium carbonate is a mood stabilizer commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to reduce the severity and frequency of mania and can also help to relieve or prevent bipolar depression. Lithium does not have any antagonistic effects on benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Thus, it would not be the correct medication to administer in this case.

Choice D Reason:

Methadone is a long-acting opioid used for pain management and as part of medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder. It works by binding to the same receptors in the brain as other opioids, helping to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings. Methadone does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.

A. Aggressive and angry. B. Concerned over recent events. C. Indifferent to their surroundings. D. Supportive in group.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Aggressive and angry.

Aggressive and angry behavior is not indicative of apathy. Apathy is characterized by a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern. Aggression and anger are more likely to be associated with other symptoms of schizophrenia, such as paranoia or frustration, rather than apathy.

Choice B Reason:

Concerned over recent events.

Being concerned over recent events shows an active engagement with one’s environment and emotions. This is the opposite of apathy, which involves a lack of interest or concern. Therefore, this behavior does not align with the definition of apathy.

Choice C Reason:

Indifferent to their surroundings.

This is the correct response. Indifference to one’s surroundings is a clear sign of apathy. In schizophrenia, apathy is a common negative symptom and involves a diminished ability to initiate and sustain activities, including social interactions. This lack of interest or motivation is a key feature of apathy.

Choice D Reason:

Supportive in group.

Being supportive in a group setting indicates active participation and concern for others, which is not consistent with apathy. Apathy would manifest as a lack of engagement or interest in group activities and interactions.

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A client on the inpatient psychiatric unit is scheduled for discharge tomorrow. Which of the following statements would indicate that the client is ready for discharge?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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