The nurse recognizes that a function of the Mental Status Exam is to:
Organize clinical observations
Obtain information about the client’s medical history
Establish limit setting
Determine the client’s IQ
Correct Answer : A,B
The correct answer is a, b.
Choice A Reason:
The statement “Organize clinical observations” is correct. One of the primary functions of the Mental Status Exam (MSE) is to systematically organize clinical observations. This includes assessing the client’s appearance, behavior, mood, and cognitive functions. By organizing these observations, healthcare providers can create a comprehensive picture of the client’s current mental state, which is crucial for diagnosis and treatment planning.
Choice B Reason:
The statement “Obtain information about the client’s medical history” is correct. The MSE often involves gathering detailed information about the client’s medical history, including past mental health issues, treatments, and any relevant medical conditions. This information helps in understanding the client’s baseline mental status and identifying any changes or abnormalities. It also aids in creating an effective treatment plan tailored to the client’s specific needs.
Choice C Reason:
The statement “Establish limit setting” is incorrect. While limit setting is an important aspect of managing certain mental health conditions, it is not a primary function of the MSE. Limit setting typically involves establishing boundaries and rules to manage behaviors, which is more relevant in therapeutic settings rather than during the assessment phase. The MSE focuses on evaluating the client’s current mental state rather than setting behavioral limits.
Choice D Reason:
The statement “Determine the client’s IQ” is incorrect. The MSE is not designed to measure a client’s intelligence quotient (IQ)4. Instead, it assesses cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and orientation. IQ tests are specialized assessments that require specific tools and are conducted separately from the MSE. The MSE provides a general overview of cognitive functioning but does not quantify intelligence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is c, e.
Choice A Reason:
The statement “Clear and organized speech” is incorrect. Clients with delirium often exhibit disorganized thinking and speech. Their speech may be rambling, irrelevant, or incoherent, reflecting their fluctuating mental state. Clear and organized speech is more characteristic of a person without cognitive impairment or with stable cognitive function.
Choice B Reason:
The statement “Increased attention and focus” is incorrect. Delirium is characterized by a disturbance in attention and awareness. Clients with delirium typically have difficulty sustaining or shifting attention, which is a key diagnostic criterion. Increased attention and focus are not consistent with the presentation of delirium.
Choice C Reason:
The statement “Fluctuating levels of consciousness” is correct. One of the hallmark features of delirium is the fluctuation in the level of consciousness throughout the day3. Clients may experience periods of lucidity interspersed with confusion and disorientation. This fluctuation is a critical diagnostic indicator of delirium.
Choice D Reason:
The statement “Stable and consistent cognitive function” is incorrect. Delirium is marked by an acute change in cognitive function, which is neither stable nor consistent. Cognitive functions such as memory, orientation, and language are typically impaired and fluctuate over time. Stable cognitive function would not support a diagnosis of delirium.
Choice E Reason:
The statement “Agitation and aggression” is correct. Clients with delirium often exhibit behavioral disturbances, including agitation and aggression. These symptoms can result from the confusion and disorientation experienced during delirium. Recognizing these behavioral changes is important for the diagnosis and management of delirium.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The statement “Documentation of the event will include interventions attempted prior to initiating restraints” is correct. Proper documentation is crucial when restraints are used. This includes detailing the client’s behavior that necessitated the restraint, the interventions attempted before applying the restraint, the type of restraint used, and the time it was applied. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability, and it helps in evaluating the necessity and appropriateness of the restraint use.
Choice B Reason:
The statement “The physician must be present at the time of the restraint episode” is incorrect. While a physician’s order is required for the use of restraints, the physician does not need to be physically present at the time of the restraint episode. However, the physician must evaluate the client within a specified time frame after the restraint is applied, typically within one hour. This ensures that the restraint is medically justified and that the client’s condition is appropriately monitored.
Choice C Reason:
The statement “The client will be turned every 2 hours” is correct. Clients in restraints must be regularly repositioned to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to ensure their comfort. Turning the client every 2 hours is a standard practice to maintain skin integrity and promote circulation. This intervention is part of the comprehensive care plan for clients in restraints.
Choice D Reason:
The statement “The client will need to be monitored every one-half hour” is correct. Frequent monitoring of clients in restraints is essential to ensure their safety and well-being. This includes checking for signs of distress, ensuring that the restraints are not causing harm, and assessing the client’s vital signs5. Monitoring every 30 minutes helps in promptly addressing any issues that may arise and ensures that the restraints are used safely and effectively.
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