A client presents to the healthcare setting and is ordered verapamil (Calan) to treat his hypertension. Which assessment finding by the nurse would determine if the medication should be held?

Pulse oximetry of 92%

Respiratory rate of 12

Pulse of 78

History of a myocardial infarction a week ago

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A pulse oximetry of 92% indicates mild hypoxia but does not directly contraindicate the use of verapamil.
B. A respiratory rate of 12 is within the normal range for adults and does not indicate a need to hold the medication.
C. A pulse of 78 is within the normal range but should be assessed in the context of the client’s overall condition; however, if the pulse were significantly lower (e.g., <60 bpm), it would necessitate holding the medication due to the risk of bradycardia.
D. A history of myocardial infarction a week ago would warrant caution but is not an absolute reason to hold verapamil unless other contraindications are present, as verapamil can be beneficial for managing hypertension post-MI.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Decreased urination is an anticholinergic side effect due to the medication's action on the bladder.
B. Diarrhea is not an anticholinergic side effect; in fact, anticholinergics typically cause constipation.
C. Dry mouth is a common anticholinergic side effect, resulting from reduced saliva production.
D. Tachycardia can occur as an anticholinergic effect due to decreased vagal tone.
E. Excessive lacrimation is not associated with anticholinergic effects; it is the opposite, as anticholinergics usually lead to dry eyes.
F. Excessive sweating is contrary to anticholinergic effects, which often result in decreased sweating.

A. The drug will be most effective when given orally. B. The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route. C. The drug is excreted by the kidneys at a slower rate than most medications. D. The kidney will metabolize some of the drug before it reaches the bloodstream.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.

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A client presents to the healthcare setting and is ordered verapamil (Calan) to treat his hypertension. Which assessment finding by the nurse would determine if the medication should be held?

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