The nurse is caring for a client currently taking a combination birth control pill for contraception prevention. Which adverse effect would the nurse closely monitor for associated with this medication?

Hypertension

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

Thromboembolism

Osteoporosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. While hormonal contraceptives can affect blood pressure, the risk of significant hypertension is less immediate than thromboembolism.
B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding can occur but is generally not as serious as thromboembolism and may resolve with continued use.
C. Combination birth control pills increase the risk of thromboembolic events, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism, making it essential to monitor for signs of these complications.
D. Osteoporosis is a long-term concern but is not an acute effect of combination birth control pills; monitoring for thromboembolism is more critical.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.

A. The client's blood pressure is within the expected reference range. B. The client reports a recent weight gain. C. The client reports an increase in mood. D. The client's legs are not swollen.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While maintaining blood pressure within the expected range is important, it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of sertraline, which is an antidepressant.
B. Weight gain can occur with some antidepressants, but it is not a direct indicator of their effectiveness.
C. An increase in mood is a primary goal of treatment with sertraline, and reporting this improvement suggests that the medication is having a positive effect.
D. The absence of swollen legs is not a relevant indicator for assessing the effectiveness of sertraline, as it does not relate to mood or depression symptoms.

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The nurse is caring for a client currently taking a combination birth control pill for contraception prevention. Which adverse effect would the nurse closely monitor for associated with this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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