A client presents with a pH of 7.25, PC02 of 40 mmHg, HCO3- of 16 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes the client's acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated
The Correct Answer is B
A. Metabolic alkalosis: This condition is characterized by an elevated pH above 7.45 and an increased bicarbonate level. In this case, the pH is low and the HCO₃⁻ is also decreased, ruling out metabolic alkalosis.
B. Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated: A pH of 7.25 indicates acidemia, and a bicarbonate level of 16 mEq/L confirms a metabolic origin. The PaCO₂ is normal at 40 mmHg, indicating that respiratory compensation has not yet occurred, making this an uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
C. Respiratory acidosis: Respiratory acidosis involves a low pH and elevated PaCO₂ due to hypoventilation. This client’s PaCO₂ is within normal range, so respiratory causes can be ruled out.
D. Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated: This condition presents with a high pH and low PaCO₂, typically due to hyperventilation. The client has an acidic pH and a normal PaCO₂, which does not support respiratory alkalosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Typical pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacterial cause of typical pneumonia. It typically presents with sudden onset of fever, productive cough with purulent sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest x-rays often show lobar consolidation, which is characteristic of this type.
B. Aspiration pneumonia: Aspiration pneumonia results from inhalation of oropharyngeal or gastric contents into the lower airways. It is commonly associated with altered consciousness, swallowing disorders, or vomiting, and is not primarily caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C. Atypical pneumonia: Atypical pneumonia is usually caused by organisms like Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, or Legionella species. It tends to have a gradual onset with dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates on imaging, which is different from the presentation of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection.
D. Chemical pneumonitis: Chemical pneumonitis is an inflammatory response in the lungs due to inhalation of irritants such as gastric acid or toxic fumes. It is not caused by bacterial infection and therefore is unrelated to Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Glatiramer acetate: Glatiramer acetate is an immunomodulatory drug used primarily to treat multiple sclerosis by reducing the frequency of relapses. It has no role in the treatment of spasm-induced incontinence and does not affect bladder muscle activity, making it irrelevant to the client’s condition.
B. Dulaglutide: Dulaglutide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist used for the management of type 2 diabetes. It works by enhancing insulin secretion and slowing gastric emptying but has no effect on neurogenic bladder or incontinence associated with spinal cord injury.
C. Oxybutynin: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that relaxes the bladder's detrusor muscle, reducing urinary frequency and urgency. It is commonly prescribed for clients with neurogenic bladder or spasm-induced incontinence following spinal cord injury, making it the most appropriate choice.
D. Montelukast sodium: Montelukast sodium is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used to prevent asthma symptoms and allergic rhinitis. It does not affect bladder function or spasticity and would not be prescribed for incontinence related to spinal cord injury.
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