A client received midazolam 2 mg and morphine sulfate 4 mg for a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse positions the client on the right side and monitors the vital signs. Which is the physiological reason for the nurse's intervention?
Provide pressure over the biopsy site.
Keep the client from aspirating.
Lessen the amount of post procedure pain
Facilitate pulmonary expansion
The Correct Answer is A
A. Provide pressure over the biopsy site:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is aimed at providing pressure over the biopsy site. This pressure helps in promoting hemostasis by compressing the blood vessels at the biopsy site, thus reducing the risk of bleeding or hematoma formation. The liver is located on the right side of the body, so positioning the client on the right side applies pressure directly over the liver, aiding in the prevention of bleeding complications.
B. Keep the client from aspirating:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is not primarily aimed at preventing aspiration. Aspiration precautions are typically implemented during procedures where there is a risk of regurgitation or vomiting, such as during anesthesia induction or recovery, rather than specifically after a liver biopsy.
C. Lessen the amount of post-procedure pain:
While positioning can play a role in managing post-procedure pain, the primary reason for positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy is to provide pressure over the biopsy site to promote hemostasis. Pain management strategies such as administering analgesics may be utilized to address any discomfort experienced by the client post-procedure.
D. Facilitate pulmonary expansion:
Positioning the client on the right side after a liver biopsy does not directly facilitate pulmonary expansion. Facilitating pulmonary expansion is typically achieved through interventions such as deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry, and early ambulation rather than positioning alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's symptoms, along with the elevated serum amylase and lipase levels, suggest the development of acute pancreatitis as a postoperative complication. Here's a detailed explanation for why option A is the correct choice:
A) Acute pancreatitis:
Correct. Acute pancreatitis is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can be triggered by various factors, including gallstones, alcohol consumption, and certain medications. In this case, the client's recent cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis (gallstones) may have led to the development of acute pancreatitis. The persistent upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with vomiting and fever, are classic symptoms of acute pancreatitis. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are common laboratory findings in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic cell injury and leakage of these enzymes into the bloodstream.
B) Surgical site infection:
While surgical site infections are potential complications of cholecystectomy, the client's symptoms, including upper abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever, are more indicative of a systemic inflammatory process rather than localized infection at the surgical site.
C) Hepatorenal failure:
Hepatorenal failure, also known as hepatorenal syndrome, refers to kidney dysfunction that occurs as a complication of advanced liver disease. The client's symptoms and laboratory findings are not consistent with hepatorenal failure, as there are no signs of significant liver dysfunction or advanced liver disease.
D) Biliary duct obstruction:
While biliary duct obstruction can lead to symptoms similar to those of acute pancreatitis, such as upper abdominal pain and vomiting, the presence of elevated serum amylase and lipase levels strongly suggests pancreatic involvement rather than isolated biliary duct obstruction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output:
This statement is incorrect. According to the Frank-Starling law, afterload refers to the resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. An increase in afterload typically results in increased systolic pressure, not decreased, as the heart works harder to overcome the increased resistance. However, increased afterload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to the increased work of the heart.
B) A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume:
This statement is incorrect. A decrease in afterload typically reduces the workload on the heart, which may lead to reverse remodeling and a reduction in cardiac hypertrophy. Increased diastolic volume may occur due to reduced afterload, but it's not the direct result of hypertrophy.
C) An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility:
Correct. The Frank-Starling law states that an increase in preload (end-diastolic volume or stretch of myocardial fibers) leads to greater overlap of actin and myosin filaments within myocardial fibers during systole. This increased overlap results in stronger myocardial contraction (increased contractility), leading to an increased stroke volume and cardiac output.
D) A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility:
This statement is incorrect. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the myocardial fibers at the end of diastole. A decrease in preload would lead to decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers, not increasing diastolic muscle fiber length. Decreased preload typically results in decreased contractility rather than an impediment to contractility due to reduced myocardial stretch.
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