A client receives new prescriptions at 1000 that include discontinuing IV fluids and IV antibiotics. Which prescription should the practical nurse (PN) administer at 1300?
Ampicillin 500 mg PO q8h.
Lisinopril 5 mg PO every day.
Metformin 1000 mg PO BID.
Pantoprazole 40 mg PO every day.
The Correct Answer is A
The prescription for Ampicillin 500 mg PO q8h means that the client should take 500 mg of Ampicillin orally every 8 hours. "PO" stands for "by mouth," indicating that the medication should be taken orally. The medication is prescribed at 1000, and the next dose is due at 1300 (1:00 PM).
The other options are as follows:
B. Lisinopril 5 mg PO every day: This medication is prescribed to be taken once a day, not every 8 hours. It is not due at 1300.
C. Metformin 1000 mg PO BID: This medication is prescribed to be taken twice a day (BID), but it is not due at 1300. The timing for the next dose depends on when the first dose was administered.
D. Pantoprazole 40 mg PO every day: This medication is also prescribed to be taken once a day, not every 8 hours. It is not due at 1300.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Elevations in troponin I and CK-MB levels indicate myocardial damage, which can result from insufficient blood supply to the heart muscle due to coronary artery disease. When the heart muscle is damaged, it can lead to abnormal electrical activity and rhythm disturbances, known as cardiac dysrhythmias. These dysrhythmias can be life-threatening and require immediate attention.
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) refers to a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, which is not directly related to the elevated troponin I and CK-MB levels. Therefore, monitoring neurological vital signs for TIA is not the most significant risk in this case.
Pulmonary embolism, while it is a serious condition, is not directly indicated by the elevated troponin I and CK-MB levels. Lifestyle modifications may be important for managing coronary artery disease but are not the most significant risk based on the given information.
Recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI) may be a concern for the client with coronary artery disease, but the elevated troponin I and CK-MB levels suggest that myocardial damage has already occurred. The focus at this point would be on managing the acute myocardial damage and the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the priority action by the practical nurse (PN) because it can help identify and prevent a potential adverse reaction to the medication. A client who is reaching saturation with medication means that the client has reached the maximum level of medication in the blood that can produce the desired therapeutic effect. However, this also means that the client is at a higher risk of developing toxicity or side effects from the medication.
The PN should report the findings of muscle soreness, fatigue, and warm skin to the charge nurse, as these may indicate signs of inflammation, infection, or allergic reaction to the medication. The PN should also monitor the client's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and laboratory values, and document the findings. The charge nurse should notify the health care provider and adjust the medication dosage or regimen as ordered.
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