A client who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-Cell count of less than 200 cells/µL. Based on the diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct?
"The client meets the criteria for the chronic asymptomatic HIV infection phase."
"The client has developed Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)."
"The client's CD4+ T-cell count is within the normal range."
"The client meets the criteria for the acute HIV infection phase."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/µL and the presence of PCP are indicative of AIDS, not the chronic asymptomatic phase of HIV.
Choice B reason: This is the correct choice. A CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/µL and an opportunistic infection such as PCP meet the CDC criteria for an AIDS diagnosis.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect. A CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/µL is below the normal range and is one of the criteria for an AIDS diagnosis.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect because the acute HIV infection phase is characterized by a high viral load and a decrease in CD4+ T-cell count, but not necessarily below 200 cells/µL or the presence of opportunistic infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that is used as a quick-relief medication to prevent exercise-induced bronchoconstriction.
Choice B reason: Prednisone is a corticosteroid used for long-term control, not for immediate relief before exercise.
Choice C reason: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term control and prevention, not typically for immediate pre-exercise use.
Choice D reason: Fluticasone/salmeterol is a combination of a corticosteroid and a long-acting beta-2 agonist, used for long-term control, not for quick relief before exercise.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Positioning a child supine after a tonsillectomy is not recommended due to the risk of respiratory complications. Elevating the head of the bed is preferred to prevent aspiration and facilitate breathing.
Choice B reason: Administering analgesics on a schedule is crucial for effective pain management. It helps maintain consistent pain relief, which is important for encouraging fluid intake and preventing dehydration.
Choice C reason: Encouraging a child to blow their nose gently after a tonsillectomy is not advised because it can increase the risk of bleeding. Instead, gentle mouth breathing and avoiding nose blowing are recommended.
Choice D reason: Offering orange juice after a tonsillectomy is not ideal as acidic beverages can irritate the throat. It's better to provide non-acidic fluids like water or apple juice to keep the child hydrated.
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