A client who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary diabetes insipidus (DI) asks the nurse if they will need insulin therapy. Which response should the nurse provide?

Insulin is used to counteract excessive water loss by reducing the serum glucose level.

Daily dietary habits and glucose levels will be assessed to determine the need for insulin.

The treatment goal is to conserve water loss by maintaining normal serum glucose levels.

Diabetes insipidus is managed by balancing body fluids using vasopressin hormone therapy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Insulin reduces serum glucose in diabetes mellitus, not water loss in diabetes insipidus (DI). DI results from vasopressin deficiency, causing excessive urination. Insulin is irrelevant, as DI is a fluid balance disorder, not a glucose metabolism issue, making this response incorrect and misleading for the client.

Choice B reason: Assessing dietary habits and glucose levels pertains to diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. DI involves water loss due to vasopressin deficiency, not glucose dysregulation. This response misaligns with DI’s pathophysiology, as insulin or glucose monitoring is unnecessary, and vasopressin therapy is the standard treatment.

Choice C reason: Maintaining normal serum glucose is a goal for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus, which involves water loss from vasopressin deficiency. DI treatment focuses on fluid balance via vasopressin, not glucose control. This response is incorrect, as it conflates DI with an unrelated metabolic condition.

Choice D reason: Diabetes insipidus is managed with vasopressin (ADH) therapy to reduce excessive urination and conserve water, addressing the underlying deficiency. This response accurately explains DI’s treatment, distinguishing it from diabetes mellitus and clarifying that insulin is not needed, aligning with evidence-based endocrinology practice for fluid balance.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Hypertensive crisis is not a feature of Addison’s disease, which causes hypotension due to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency. Cortisol kits address adrenal insufficiency during stress, not hypertension. This choice is incorrect, as it misaligns with Addison’s pathophysiology and cortisol’s role.

Choice B reason: Cortisol is not used for systemic allergic reactions, which require antihistamines or epinephrine. Addison’s patients need cortisol for adrenal insufficiency during stress, as their bodies cannot produce it. This choice is incorrect, as cortisol kits address hypoadrenalism, not anaphylaxis.

Choice C reason: Addison’s disease involves adrenal insufficiency, impairing cortisol production. Stress increases cortisol demand, which the patient cannot meet, risking adrenal crisis. Carrying a cortisol kit allows rapid administration during stress, preventing life-threatening hypotension or shock, aligning with endocrinology evidence for Addison’s management.

Choice D reason: Hyperglycemia is unrelated to Addison’s disease, which does not typically affect glucose metabolism. Cortisol kits address adrenal insufficiency, not blood glucose. This choice is incorrect, as cortisol replacement is for stress-induced hypoadrenalism, not glycemic control, per Addison’s pathophysiological basis.

A. Staphylococcus aureus abscess around a hair follicle. B. Insect or spider bite that becomes infected. C. Inadequate blood supply to the area. D. Sexual contact with an infected partner.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A furuncle is a painful abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus infecting a hair follicle, leading to purulent, tender nodules. This bacterial etiology is the primary risk factor, as S. aureus colonizes skin and invades follicles, causing localized infection. This aligns with dermatological pathology for furuncle development.

Choice B reason: Insect or spider bites may cause secondary infections but are not the primary etiology of furuncles. Furuncles specifically result from S. aureus folliculitis. Bites cause different lesions, like cellulitis, making this incorrect for the typical pathological process leading to a furuncle’s formation.

Choice C reason: Inadequate blood supply may impair healing but does not directly cause furuncles. S. aureus infection of hair follicles is the primary etiology. Poor perfusion is a risk for chronic wounds, not acute folliculitis, making this incorrect for the pathological etiology of a furuncle.

Choice D reason: Sexual contact with an infected partner may transmit STDs but is unrelated to furuncles, which are caused by S. aureus skin infections. Furuncles are not sexually transmitted, making this incorrect, as the etiology is bacterial colonization of hair follicles, not interpersonal transmission.

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A client who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary diabetes insipidus (DI) asks the nurse if they will need insulin therapy. Which response should the nurse provide?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing a female client with Addison’s disease for self-care after discharge. Which is the pathophysiological basis to support the need for the client to carry a cortisol kit at all times?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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