A client who is pregnant has a history of recurrent genital herpes virus. The client asks the nurse what will be done to suppress an outbreak when she is near term. What is the nurse's response?

"Oral acyclovir may be used during pregnancy."

"Intravenous antiviral agents will be used if an outbreak occurs."

"Topical acyclovir must be used to control outbreaks."

"Antiviral medications are not safe during pregnancy."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a. This is the correct answer. Oral acyclovir is considered safe during pregnancy and may be used to suppress outbreaks of genital herpes in pregnant women.

b. Using intravenous antiviral agents is typically reserved for severe cases and is not the first-line approach for suppressing outbreaks in pregnant women.

c. While topical acyclovir can be used for genital herpes outbreaks, it is not typically the first choice for suppression during pregnancy.

d. This statement is not accurate. Some antiviral medications, including oral acyclovir, are considered safe during pregnancy when the benefits outweigh the risks, especially in cases where there is a history of recurrent genital herpes.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a) Stopping all antibiotics and implementing strict use of alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not the appropriate response to the observed symptoms. The focus should be on addressing the potential infection.

b) The symptoms suggest the possibility of Clostridium difficile infection, and discontinuing the cephalosporin is crucial. Vancomycin or metronidazole is commonly used to treat C. difficile infection.

c) Requesting an additional antibiotic to override the effects of the cephalosporin is not the appropriate course of action. The focus should be on discontinuing the causative antibiotic.

d) Increasing the dose of cephalosporin is contraindicated in the presence of suspected C. difficile infection. Isolation measures may be implemented, but the priority is discontinuing the causative antibiotic and initiating appropriate treatment for the infection.

A. "Apply the medication over the entire body twice daily for two weeks." B. "Use the medication for at least one week after the symptoms have cleared." C. "Sun exposure will minimize the drug's effects." D. "This drug is effective after a single application."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a) Itraconazole is typically administered orally for fungal infections, not applied topically. This statement is incorrect.

b) Using the medication for at least one week after symptoms have cleared is not a standard instruction for itraconazole. Treatment duration is usually prescribed by the healthcare provider.

c) Sun exposure does not minimize the effects of itraconazole. This statement is inaccurate.

d) Itraconazole is not usually applied topically, but this option is the closest to the correct information. However, the more accurate statement would be that itraconazole is effective when taken systemically for fungal infections.

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A client who is pregnant has a history of recurrent genital herpes virus. The client asks the nurse what will be done to suppress an outbreak when she is near term. What is the nurse's response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client receiving a cephalosporin has passed six distinct-smelling, unformed stools in the first 6 hours of the nurse's shift. What is the nurse's best action?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client presents with tinea corporis, and the prescriber orders itraconazole. When educating the client about this medication, the nurse will include which statement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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