A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Notify the healthcare provider.

Administer a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug.

Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings.

Collect a capillary glucose level.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Tremors can be a side effect of pregabalin and may indicate a need to adjust the dosage or reconsider the medication; notifying the healthcare provider is appropriate.
B. Administering an antianxiety drug without consulting the healthcare provider may not address the underlying cause of the tremors and could lead to further complications.
C. Orthostatic blood pressure readings are not directly related to the symptom of hand tremors caused by pregabalin.
D. While glucose levels could influence symptoms, tremors are more likely a side effect of pregabalin rather than an indication of altered glucose levels.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. An INR of 2.8 is within the therapeutic range for clients on warfarin, so obtaining another blood sample is not necessary.
B. An INR of 2.8 indicates that the client is within the therapeutic range, so it is appropriate to give the next scheduled dose. However, monitoring for potential bleeding complications is a higher priority.
C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial because, while an INR of 2.8 is within the therapeutic range, it is still important to watch for any bleeding complications as part of routine care.
D. Notifying the healthcare provider is not immediately necessary unless there are signs of bleeding or other concerns, as an INR of 2.8 is typically within the acceptable range for therapeutic anticoagulation.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

Blank 1: Adverse drug reaction: The client’s symptoms of dizziness, headache, burning sensation, redness, flushing, hives, and itching after the administration of vancomycin indicate a severe allergic reaction, likely "Red Man Syndrome," which is an adverse drug reaction.

Blank 2: Antibiotic: The blood pressure changes (initial drop to 108/46 mmHg) are most likely due to the adverse reaction to the vancomycin infusion. The hypotension occurred as a direct result of the antibiotic administration.

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A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation who receives a prescription for warfarin. The international normalized ratio (INR) is 2.8. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

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