A client who is recovering from a lower extremity amputation complains of tingling and "shooting" pain in the amputated extremity. The nurse knows that which of the following is true about this type of pain?
The pain comes from severed blood vessels in the residual stump.
It is psychosomatic pain that the patient is just imagining.
It is often treated with adjunct medications such as antiepileptics and antidepressants.
It is somatic pain that always responds well to opioid medications.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The pain does not come from severed blood vessels in the residual stump. Phantom limb pain is not caused by the stump itself but rather by the brain’s perception of the missing limb.
B. Phantom limb pain is not psychosomatic. It is a real phenomenon where the brain continues to receive signals from nerves that were previously connected to the amputated limb.
C. Phantom limb pain is often treated with adjunct medications such as antiepileptics (e.g., gabapentin) and antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline), which help modify the way the brain processes pain signals.
D. While opioid medications can be used for pain management, phantom limb pain often does not respond well to opioids. It typically requires a combination of other treatments, such as those mentioned in C.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This statement is incorrect. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, and its duration of action is much shorter than 24 hours. It is typically effective for about 3-5 hours.
B. Administering Lispro 60 minutes before meals would be too early, as it peaks in about 1-2 hours after injection and works best when given closer to meal times.
C. Lispro should be administered 15-30 minutes before meals to match the onset of action, which begins within 15 minutes of injection. This timing allows the insulin to be active when blood glucose rises after eating.
D. Lispro does not require administration 2-6 hours before meals, as this would not align with its rapid onset of action.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antihypertensive medication is not a priority intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL, which indicates hyperglycemia, likely due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The focus should be on correcting the hyperglycemia and preventing complications like dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
B. Fluid replacement is essential to treat dehydration caused by hyperglycemia, as high blood glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis.
C. Potassium laboratory monitoring is crucial because insulin treatment can shift potassium into cells, potentially causing hypokalemia, so monitoring is necessary during treatment.
D. Insulin IV infusion is necessary to lower the blood glucose level in clients with severe hyperglycemia, such as in DKA or HHS.
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