A client who is taking methylprednisolone reports feeling thirsty. Which action should the nurse take first?
Monitor urinary output.
Notify the healthcare provider (HCP).
Prepare to give insulin.
Obtain fingerstick blood glucose.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Monitor urinary output: While monitoring output is important, it does not provide immediate diagnostic information regarding the cause of the client’s thirst. It is a supportive action but not the most efficient first step to investigate potential hyperglycemia.
B. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP): Notifying the HCP is appropriate if there are abnormal findings or the client’s condition worsens. However, the nurse should gather objective data—such as a blood glucose reading—before contacting the provider.
C. Prepare to give insulin: Insulin should not be administered without confirmation of elevated blood glucose. Giving insulin without verifying hyperglycemia could lead to serious complications, including hypoglycemia.
D. Obtain fingerstick blood glucose: Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can raise blood glucose levels, and excessive thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia. Checking the client’s blood glucose is the most appropriate first action to determine if elevated glucose is causing the symptom.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Expectorating bronchial secretions: This outcome is more closely associated with expectorants, which loosen mucus in the airways. Antitussives, by contrast, suppress the cough reflex and are not intended to increase mucus clearance or productive coughing.
B. Reports reduced nasal discharge: Reduced nasal discharge is typically an effect of decongestants or antihistamines, not antitussive medications. Antitussives target the cough reflex, not nasal secretions.
C. Able to sleep through the night: While improved sleep may result from reduced coughing, it is a secondary and nonspecific outcome. The ability to sleep could be influenced by other factors such as overall symptom relief, not necessarily the effectiveness of the antitussive alone.
D. Denies having coughing spells: Antitussives are designed to suppress the cough reflex, particularly in cases of dry, nonproductive cough. A report of no more coughing spells directly reflects the intended therapeutic effect of the medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I should take this medication only when I am having an asthma attack.": Montelukast is not intended for acute asthma attacks. It is a maintenance medication taken daily to reduce airway inflammation and prevent symptoms, not to treat attacks in progress.
B. "This medication will stop an asthma attack immediately.": Montelukast does not act quickly enough to treat acute bronchospasm. Short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol are used for immediate relief during an asthma attack, not leukotriene modifiers.
C. "I will take the tablet every evening to control my asthma.": Montelukast is prescribed as a daily maintenance therapy, typically taken in the evening to help control chronic asthma symptoms and to reduce the frequency and severity of exacerbations over time.
D. "I will not need to use my inhalers twice a day when I start this medicine.": Even after starting montelukast, clients often still need to use inhaled corticosteroids or other maintenance inhalers. Montelukast is an adjunct therapy, not a replacement for inhaled medications.
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