The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?

Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast.

Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered.

Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time.

Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast:
Administering sucralfate up to 1 hour after breakfast may not provide optimal effectiveness as it should ideally be taken on an empty stomach to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake. Taking it after breakfast might not allow sufficient time for the medication to coat these areas adequately.

B) Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered:
Taking sucralfate with meals or when the meal tray is delivered is not recommended as food can interfere with its effectiveness. It is best taken on an empty stomach to allow it to coat the stomach lining without interference from food, ensuring maximum therapeutic benefit.

C) Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time:
Documenting a refusal should only be done if the client declines after receiving appropriate education and understanding. Simply refusing the client's request without providing education on the proper timing for taking sucralfate would not be appropriate.

D) Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals:
This is the correct response. Educating the client about the importance of taking sucralfate at least 1 hour before meals ensures optimal effectiveness. This timing allows the medication to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake, maximizing its therapeutic benefit.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Monitoring blood pressure: Tamsulosin is an alpha-adrenergic blocker used to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urinary flow in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Monitoring blood pressure is important because tamsulosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially when starting the medication or increasing the dose.
B) Assessing urine output: This is the correct answer. Tamsulosin can cause urinary retention, especially in patients with bladder outlet obstruction. Monitoring urine output helps assess for any signs of urinary retention or decreased urinary flow.
C) Obtaining daily weights: This is not typically necessary for monitoring the effects of tamsulosin. Changes in weight may occur due to other factors and are not directly related to the medication.
D) Performing a bladder scan: While performing a bladder scan may be indicated if there are specific concerns about urinary retention, assessing urine output is a more direct and immediate way to monitor for this adverse reaction.

A. Colorectal cancer. B. Pulmonary embolism. C. Dyspareunia. D. Osteoporosis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Colorectal cancer:
While a history of colorectal cancer is important to note in a client’s medical history, it is not typically a contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen replacement therapy may even have benefits in terms of reducing the risk of colorectal cancer in some cases. However, the primary concern in this scenario is the client’s history of pulmonary embolism, which presents a significant risk factor for adverse outcomes with estrogen therapy.

B) Pulmonary embolism:

A history of pulmonary embolism is a significant contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen therapy increases the risk of thromboembolic events, and individuals with a history of pulmonary embolism are already predisposed to such events. Administering estrogen replacement therapy to a client with a history of pulmonary embolism could further increase the risk of recurrent embolism or deep vein thrombosis, leading to potentially life-threatening complications.

C) Dyspareunia:

Dyspareunia, or painful sexual intercourse, is a symptom commonly associated with menopause and may be an indication for estrogen replacement therapy. However, it is not a contraindication for treatment unless there are other complicating factors that need to be considered.

D) Osteoporosis:

Osteoporosis, characterized by decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures, is often treated with estrogen replacement therapy to help maintain bone health and reduce the risk of fractures. While it is important to consider the client’s osteoporosis diagnosis when initiating estrogen therapy, it is not typically a contraindication for treatment unless there are other specific concerns or complications present.

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The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who is experiencing vasomotor symptoms related to menopause receives a new prescription for estrogen replacement. Which client condition should the nurse report the healthcare provider prior to administering the first dose of the medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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