A client who reports routine consumption of more than three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the client?

"Do not take a scheduled-dose preparation of acetaminophen with opioid analgesics."

"Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."

"Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."

"Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

a) The statement about not taking a scheduled-dose preparation of acetaminophen with opioid analgesics is unrelated to the client's question about alcohol consumption.

b) Excessive alcohol intake increases the risk of acetaminophen-induced liver damage. The recommended maximum dose is 3 grams per day to minimize the risk of hepatotoxicity.

c) The recommendation of not exceeding 2 gm of acetaminophen a day is conservative, but the commonly accepted maximum is 3 grams per day.

d) While the general guideline is not to exceed 4 grams of acetaminophen per day for the general population, individuals with alcohol consumption may be more susceptible to liver damage, so a lower limit is often advised.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

a. This is the correct answer. Oral acyclovir is considered safe during pregnancy and may be used to suppress outbreaks of genital herpes in pregnant women.

b. Using intravenous antiviral agents is typically reserved for severe cases and is not the first-line approach for suppressing outbreaks in pregnant women.

c. While topical acyclovir can be used for genital herpes outbreaks, it is not typically the first choice for suppression during pregnancy.

d. This statement is not accurate. Some antiviral medications, including oral acyclovir, are considered safe during pregnancy when the benefits outweigh the risks, especially in cases where there is a history of recurrent genital herpes.

A. Concurrent use of acetaminophen for pain. B. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 80 seconds. C. An international normalized ratio (INR) of 0.8. D. Evidence of dark, tarry stools.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a) Concurrent use of acetaminophen is not directly related to heparin therapy for atrial fibrillation. It may need attention but does not warrant immediate reporting.

b) An aPTT of 80 seconds is significantly prolonged and may indicate a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. This finding requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider.

c) An INR of 0.8 is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate concern in the context of heparin infusion.

d) Dark, tarry stools could indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but may not be directly related to heparin therapy. It sho

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A client who reports routine consumption of more than three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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