A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion. The nurse notes that the client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the nurse take? Reference Range: aPTT [25 to 35 seconds, therapeutic range for heparin 1.5 to 2.5 times baseline, approximately 38 to 88 seconds].
Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate.
Increase the heparin infusion rate by 100 units/hour.
Stop the heparin infusion and notify the provider.
Administer protamine sulfate immediately.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Continuing heparin at aPTT 120 seconds is unsafe, as it exceeds the therapeutic range (38–88 seconds), indicating excessive anticoagulation. This risks bleeding, as heparin enhances antithrombin, inhibiting clotting factors. Stopping and notifying the provider prevents hemorrhage, making continuation dangerous for this DVT client.
Choice B reason: Increasing heparin is contraindicated with aPTT 120 seconds, far above therapeutic (38–88 seconds). Excessive anticoagulation from heparin’s antithrombin activation heightens bleeding risk. Stopping the infusion and notifying the provider corrects over-anticoagulation, preventing complications like hematoma, making an increase harmful and inappropriate.
Choice C reason: Stopping heparin and notifying the provider is critical at aPTT 120 seconds, indicating over-anticoagulation. Heparin’s inhibition of clotting factors increases bleeding risk in DVT treatment. Halting infusion prevents hemorrhage, and provider notification ensures dose adjustment or reversal, addressing the pathophysiological risk effectively and promptly.
Choice D reason: Administering protamine sulfate reverses heparin but requires provider order, as aPTT 120 seconds indicates high bleeding risk. Stopping infusion first prevents further anticoagulation, and notifying the provider ensures guided reversal, avoiding premature protamine use, which risks anaphylaxis or thrombosis, making this less immediate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Dry skin and inelastic turgor reflect dehydration in DI from antidiuretic hormone deficiency, causing water loss. This is less urgent than hypernatremia (185 mEq/L), which dehydrates brain cells, risking seizures or coma, requiring immediate fluid correction to prevent neurological damage in this critical condition.
Choice B reason: Tachycardia (110 beats/minute) compensates for hypovolemia in DI, where water loss reduces preload, triggering sympathetic activation. This is less critical than hypernatremia (185 mEq/L), which causes cerebral dehydration, necessitating urgent hypotonic fluids to prevent neurological complications, making heart rate secondary.
Choice C reason: Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L indicates severe hypernatremia in DI, where water loss concentrates sodium, dehydrating neurons and risking seizures or coma. Immediate IV hypotonic fluids (e.g., 5% dextrose) correct osmolarity, preventing life-threatening cerebral complications, addressing the urgent pathophysiological crisis in DI.
Choice D reason: Polyuria and thirst are hallmark DI symptoms from water loss but expected and less urgent than hypernatremia (185 mEq/L), which threatens neurological function via osmotic brain injury. Correcting sodium is critical to prevent seizures, making these symptoms secondary to urgent electrolyte management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Persistent pain after Herpes zoster suggests postherpetic neuralgia (PHN), a neuropathic condition from varicella-zoster virus damaging sensory nerves. Assessing pain intensity, location, and characteristics guides treatment with analgesics or anticonvulsants like gabapentin. This step differentiates PHN from other causes, ensuring targeted therapy to alleviate nerve pain and improve quality of life.
Choice B reason: Checking shingles vaccination status is irrelevant for current pain, as the client already had Herpes zoster. Vaccination prevents initial infection but does not treat PHN, which results from nerve damage during active infection. Pain assessment is critical to address neuropathic symptoms caused by viral-induced sensory nerve dysfunction, making this less urgent.
Choice C reason: A mental status exam evaluates cognition but is not indicated for PHN, a physiological condition from nerve damage, not a cognitive issue. Pain is neuropathic, driven by damaged sensory neurons, not psychological factors. Assessing pain directly addresses the client’s complaint, guiding treatment for nerve-related discomfort, making this action inappropriate.
Choice D reason: Teaching about phantom pain is incorrect, as phantom pain occurs post-amputation, not after shingles. PHN involves persistent nerve pain in the affected dermatome due to viral nerve damage. Misdiagnosing this could delay proper management, as pain assessment is needed to confirm PHN and initiate therapies like gabapentin, not phantom pain education.
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