The nurse in a clinic reviewing laboratory results for a patient suspected of having undiagnosed diabetes mellitus. Which of the following results would be diagnostic for diabetes

Fasting plasma glucose of 98mg/dl

Hemoglobin A1C (glycosylated hemoglobin) of 7.2%

Random plasma glucose of 110 mg/dl

Two hour plasma glucose of 140mg/dl

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Fasting plasma glucose of 98 mg/dl:
A fasting plasma glucose level of 98 mg/dl is within the normal range (70–99 mg/dl). According to diagnostic criteria, a fasting plasma glucose level of 100–125 mg/dl is considered prediabetes, and 126 mg/dl or higher on two separate occasions is diagnostic for diabetes. Therefore, a fasting plasma glucose of 98 mg/dl is not diagnostic for diabetes.

B) Hemoglobin A1C (glycosylated hemoglobin) of 7.2%:
An HbA1C level of 7.2% is diagnostic for diabetes. The American Diabetes Association (ADA) defines diabetes as an HbA1C of 6.5% or higher. The HbA1C test reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2–3 months, and a level of 7.2% indicates that the patient's blood glucose levels have been elevated over time, consistent with diabetes. This is a key diagnostic criterion.

C) Random plasma glucose of 110 mg/dl:
Although a random glucose value greater than 200 mg/dl with symptoms of hyperglycemia can be diagnostic of diabetes, 110 mg/dl is within the normal range and does not meet the criteria for a diabetes diagnosis. For diagnostic purposes, a random plasma glucose must be 200 mg/dl or higher.

D) Two hour plasma glucose of 140 mg/dl:
For the test to be diagnostic of diabetes, the plasma glucose must be 200 mg/dl or higher after two hours. A level of 140 mg/dl suggests normal glucose tolerance or prediabetes, but it is not diagnostic for diabetes.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Pernicious anemia:
Vitamin B12 injections are most commonly used to treat pernicious anemia, which is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to an inability to absorb the vitamin from the gastrointestinal tract. This condition is often associated with a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein required for vitamin B12 absorption. As a result, the body cannot make enough healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. The treatment of pernicious anemia typically involves lifelong vitamin B12 injections, making this the correct answer.

B) Hemolytic anemia:
It is not typically treated with vitamin B12 injections. Instead, hemolytic anemia may require treatments that address the underlying cause of red blood cell destruction, such as corticosteroids, immunosuppressive therapy, or splenectomy, depending on the type of hemolysis. Therefore, vitamin B12 would not be the primary treatment for this type of anemia.

C) Iron deficiency anemia:
It is typically treated with iron supplements, either orally or intravenously, rather than vitamin B12. While both conditions cause anemia, the treatment for iron deficiency anemia is not vitamin B12, so this is not the correct choice.

D) Aplastic anemia:
This condition is usually treated with treatments such as bone marrow stimulants, blood transfusions, or bone marrow transplantation, rather than vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 supplementation would not be indicated for the treatment of aplastic anemia.

Correct Answer is ["44"]

Explanation

Total volume to infuse: 400 mL

Infusion time: 3 hours

Drop factor of tubing: 20 gtt/mL

To find:

Drip rate (gtt/min)

Step 1: Convert infusion time to minutes

3 hours x 60 minutes/hour = 180 minutes

Step 2: Calculate the total number of drops

Total drops = Total volume x Drop factor

Total drops = 400 mL x 20 gtt/mL = 8000 gtt

Step 3: Calculate the drip rate

Drip rate = Total drops / Infusion time in minutes

Drip rate = 8000 gtt / 180 minutes = 44.44 gtt/min

Step 4: Round to the nearest whole number

44 gtt/min

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The nurse in a clinic reviewing laboratory results for a patient suspected of having undiagnosed diabetes mellitus. Which of the following results would be diagnostic for diabetes

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to administer a shot of vitamin B12 to a client with low hemoglobin. The nurse knows that this medication is most indicative of which type of anemia?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["44"]

Explanation

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