The nurse cares for a client who is a pale and reports frequent fatigue, weakness and dizziness. Which serum laboratory test result is the nurse’s priority for planning care?
RBCs 4.3mEq/L
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Hemoglobin of 9g/dl
Sodium 137 mEq/L
The Correct Answer is C
A) RBCs 4.3 million/µL:
While a low RBC count can indicate anemia, the specific value provided here is not suggestive of anemia, and it does not explain the patient's symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and dizziness as clearly as a low hemoglobin would.
B) Potassium 4.8 mEq/L:
This result is not concerning and does not directly relate to the patient's reported symptoms of pallor, fatigue, and dizziness. Therefore, this lab result does not take priority in planning care at this time.
C) Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl:
This result is consistent with anemia, which is a likely cause of the patient’s symptoms of fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and pallor. Anemia can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, explaining the symptoms the patient is experiencing. The priority action for the nurse should be to address the underlying cause of anemia and manage it to improve the patient’s oxygenation and overall condition.
D) Sodium 137 mEq/L:
Although sodium imbalances can cause neurological symptoms such as confusion or lethargy, the patient’s reported symptoms of pallor, fatigue, and dizziness are more likely related to anemia. Sodium is not the most urgent concern for this patient at the moment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid): While nitrofurantoin is commonly prescribed for urinary tract infections (UTIs), it does not typically cause a red-orange discoloration of the urine. Nitrofurantoin may cause other side effects, such as gastrointestinal upset or pulmonary issues, but urine discoloration is not a common or expected side effect.
B) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SMX TMP, Bactrim): Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim is another common medication for UTIs, but it does not cause urine to turn red-orange. Some individuals may experience allergic reactions, rash, or gastrointestinal side effects, but urine discoloration is not typically associated with this medication.
C) This is expected with a UTI not related to medications: While it’s true that UTIs can cause changes in urine color due to blood or infection, the red-orange discoloration specifically linked to a UTI is often caused by medications, not the infection itself. Therefore, this statement is not accurate in explaining the cause of the urine color change.
D) Phenazopyridine (Pyridium): This is the correct answer. Phenazopyridine is a medication commonly used to alleviate urinary tract pain and discomfort. One of its well-known side effects is causing urine to turn a red-orange color. This discoloration is harmless and typically resolves once the medication is discontinued. However, patients should be informed about this effect to avoid unnecessary concern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) "Western Blot test":
. The Western Blot test is typically used to confirm HIV infection after a positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). This test is not relevant for diagnosing pneumonia, which is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms. The patient's presentation — including dyspnea on exertion, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on the chest X-ray — points to a respiratory infection (likely pneumonia) rather than an HIV-related issue.
B) "Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics":
. The patient's symptoms, including dyspnea, cough with green sputum, fever, fatigue, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray, strongly suggest community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) or hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). In either case, broad-spectrum antibiotics are indicated to cover a wide range of potential bacterial pathogens, especially in older adults or those with comorbidities who may be at risk for more severe infections. Immediate treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications such as respiratory failure or sepsis. Once cultures and sensitivities are obtained, the antibiotics may be adjusted based on the specific pathogen.
C) "Initiation of Isoniazid and Rifampin":
. Isoniazid and Rifampin are used to treat tuberculosis (TB), but this patient’s symptoms do not indicate TB. The patient is experiencing acute respiratory symptoms, including fever, cough with sputum production, and consolidation on chest X-ray, which are more indicative of pneumonia than of tuberculosis. Although TB could present similarly, additional testing such as a TB skin test (TST) or sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) would be necessary before initiating antitubercular therapy. The priority intervention here is antibiotic treatment for bacterial pneumonia.
D) "Antiretroviral therapy":
. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to treat HIV, but there is no indication that this patient has HIV. The symptoms presented — dyspnea, productive cough, fever, and bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray — are more consistent with an acute bacterial infection such as pneumonia rather than an HIV-related complication. ART would only be appropriate if the patient were known to have HIV and developed an opportunistic infection; however, this patient's presentation suggests a primary respiratory infection, not an HIV-related issue.
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