A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?
You may bring some music to listen to for distraction.
Do not take any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test.
You will need to have someone to drive you home.
Please do not have anything to eat or drink after midnight.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction
Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.
Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test
Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.
Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home
This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.
Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight
Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Weight gain is not typically associated with tuberculosis (TB). In fact, weight loss is a common symptom of TB due to the chronic nature of the infection and the body’s increased metabolic demands to fight the disease. Patients with TB often experience a loss of appetite and significant weight loss as the disease progresses.
Choice B Reason:
Low-grade fever is a common symptom of TB. The body’s immune response to the infection often results in a persistent low-grade fever, which can be one of the early signs of the disease. This fever is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as night sweats and fatigue.
Choice C Reason:
Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can occur in patients with TB, especially if the infection has caused significant lung damage or if there is a large amount of fluid in the pleural space (pleural effusion). Dyspnea is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Contusion, or bruising, is not a symptom associated with TB. TB primarily affects the lungs and can cause systemic symptoms, but it does not typically cause bruising. Contusions are more commonly associated with trauma or conditions that affect blood clotting.
Choice E Reason:
Lethargy, or a general sense of fatigue and weakness, is a common symptom of TB. The chronic nature of the infection and the body’s ongoing immune response can lead to significant fatigue. Patients with TB often feel tired and may have difficulty performing daily activities.
Choice F Reason:
Night sweats are a hallmark symptom of TB. Patients often experience drenching night sweats that can be quite severe. This symptom, along with fever and weight loss, is part of the classic triad of TB symptoms and is an important indicator for healthcare providers to consider TB in the differential diagnosis.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 22-year-old client with asthma is considered a priority for pneumonia vaccination. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that can increase the risk of complications from pneumonia. Vaccination helps protect against pneumococcal infections, which can be particularly severe in individuals with underlying respiratory conditions.
Choice B reason: A healthy 72-year-old client is also a priority for pneumonia vaccination. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends pneumococcal vaccination for all adults aged 65 years and older. Older adults are at higher risk for pneumococcal disease due to age-related decline in immune function.
Choice C reason: A client with well-controlled diabetes should be prioritized for pneumonia vaccination. Diabetes can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections, including pneumonia. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for individuals with chronic health conditions.
Choice D reason: A client who is taking medication for hypertension is not necessarily a priority for pneumonia vaccination based solely on their hypertension. While hypertension is a common condition, it does not directly increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. However, if the client has other risk factors or comorbidities, they may still be considered for vaccination.
Choice E reason: A client who had a cholecystectomy last year is not a priority for pneumonia vaccination based on this surgical history alone. A cholecystectomy, which is the removal of the gallbladder, does not increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. Priority for vaccination is typically given to individuals with chronic health conditions, older adults, and those with weakened immune systems.
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