A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. Which action should the nurse take?

Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record.

Explain that the medication takes several weeks to reverse symptoms.

Advise the client to schedule an appointment for liver function tests.

Withhold the medication until the healthcare provider is notified.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record: Riluzole is not curative for ALS; it only modestly slows disease progression. Continuing muscle weakness and atrophy are expected findings in ALS, even after starting treatment. Accurate documentation is appropriate because no immediate change in therapy is indicated based solely on these observations.

B. Explain that the medication takes several weeks to reverse symptoms: Riluzole does not reverse ALS symptoms. It may slightly prolong survival by slowing the progression of muscle weakness, but it does not regenerate lost function or reverse disease-related damage.

C. Advise the client to schedule an appointment for liver function tests: Riluzole can affect liver function and periodic monitoring is important, but muscle weakness alone does not directly signal liver problems. Unless there are signs of hepatotoxicity, there is no immediate need for unscheduled testing.

D. Withhold the medication until the healthcare provider is notified: There is no indication to withhold riluzole based on ongoing muscle weakness, as this is consistent with the natural course of ALS. Interrupting therapy without a clear medical reason could harm the client.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Trembling: Trembling is a known side effect of albuterol due to its beta-2 adrenergic stimulation. Albuterol can cause fine muscle tremors, particularly in the hands, as part of its systemic sympathomimetic effects following inhalation.
Headache: Headache can result from vasodilation and mild CNS stimulation caused by beta-agonists like albuterol. It is a frequently reported side effect and can occur even with appropriate dosing, particularly in sensitive individuals.
Heart rate 129 beats/minute: Tachycardia is a common adverse effect of albuterol because it stimulates beta-1 receptors at higher doses, leading to an increased heart rate. A heart rate of 129 beats/minute post-treatment indicates a significant sympathetic response.
Respirations 20 breaths/minute: A decrease in respiratory rate from 36 to 20 breaths/minute reflects clinical improvement in respiratory distress. It is a positive response to albuterol therapy, not an adverse reaction.
Oxygen saturation 99% on room air: Improvement of oxygen saturation from 83% to 99% is a therapeutic goal with bronchodilator use. This indicates better gas exchange after albuterol treatment and is not an adverse reaction.

A. Sodium. B. Glucose. C. Total protein D. Hemoglobin.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Sodium: Monitoring sodium is important in many conditions, but diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding rather than causing significant electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia. Sodium levels are not the primary concern in this scenario.

B. Glucose: Blood glucose monitoring is critical for clients with diabetes or corticosteroid use, but diclofenac is not known to directly impact glucose metabolism. Reviewing glucose levels would not immediately address the symptoms of pallor and fatigue.

C. Total protein: Total protein levels reflect nutritional and liver status but are not the best marker for acute blood loss or anemia. Changes in total protein would not directly explain symptoms like pallor and fatigue related to NSAID complications.

D. Hemoglobin: Diclofenac can cause gastrointestinal irritation and occult bleeding, leading to anemia. Pallor and fatigue are classic symptoms of low hemoglobin levels, making it the most important laboratory value to review to evaluate for possible GI bleeding and anemia.

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A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. Which action should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client's serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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