A client is diagnosed with cholelithiasis. Which condition is least likely to lead to this disorder?
Too much absorption of bile acids
History of elevated serum calcium
History of elevated cholesterol in the diet
Inflammation of epithelial tissue
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Excessive bile acid absorption, often due to ileal dysfunction, reduces bile acid availability in the gallbladder, promoting cholesterol supersaturation and gallstone formation. This contributes to cholelithiasis, particularly cholesterol gallstones, by altering bile composition, making this condition a significant risk factor, not the least likely.
Choice B reason: Elevated serum calcium (hypercalcemia) is not directly linked to cholelithiasis. While hypercalcemia can cause kidney stones, gallstone formation is driven by bile composition changes, like cholesterol or bile acid imbalances, not serum calcium levels. This makes it the least likely contributor to gallstone development.
Choice C reason: Elevated dietary cholesterol increases hepatic cholesterol secretion into bile, leading to supersaturation and cholesterol gallstone formation. This is a well-established risk factor for cholelithiasis, as excess cholesterol overwhelms bile acid and phospholipid solubilization, promoting crystal formation, making it a significant contributor, not the least likely.
Choice D reason: Inflammation of epithelial tissue, such as in chronic cholecystitis, promotes gallstone formation by altering gallbladder motility and bile stasis. Inflammatory changes disrupt bile acid metabolism and increase mucin production, facilitating stone nucleation. This condition is a known risk factor for cholelithiasis, not the least likely contributor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Levothyroxine (T4) replacement requires TSH monitoring to ensure adequate dosing, as TSH reflects thyroid function. T3 replacement also requires monitoring, but T3 is less commonly used due to its short half-life. This statement is inaccurate, as TSH monitoring is essential for T4 therapy.
Choice B reason: The body converts levothyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) via deiodinase enzymes in peripheral tissues, restoring both hormone levels. T3 replacement is unnecessary, as T4 provides a stable precursor for T3 production, making this statement accurate for explaining hypothyroidism treatment rationale.
Choice C reason: T3 and T4 can be administered together in specific cases (e.g., combination therapy) without becoming inactive. However, T4 alone is standard due to its longer half-life and conversion to T3. This statement is inaccurate, as it falsely claims biochemical incompatibility between the hormones.
Choice D reason: T3 is the active thyroid hormone, not an inactive precursor to T4. T4 is converted to T3, which binds receptors to regulate metabolism. This statement is inaccurate, as it reverses the roles of T3 and T4 in thyroid hormone physiology and therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is not the primary target of antidepressants like SSRIs or tricyclics. These drugs focus on monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine). GABAergic drugs, like benzodiazepines, treat anxiety, not depression. This statement is inaccurate, as antidepressants do not enhance GABA efficacy in the limbic system or cortex.
Choice B reason: SSRIs and tricyclics block reuptake of serotonin and/or norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft, increasing their availability to stimulate postsynaptic receptors. This enhances monoamine signaling, alleviating depressive symptoms. This statement is accurate, as reuptake inhibition is the shared mechanism across these antidepressant classes, targeting mood-regulating neurotransmitters.
Choice C reason: Dopamine receptor antagonism is not a mechanism of antidepressants but is associated with antipsychotics like haloperidol. While some antidepressants indirectly affect dopamine, it is not their primary action. This statement is inaccurate, as SSRIs and tricyclics focus on serotonin and norepinephrine, not dopamine receptor blockade.
Choice D reason: Antagonizing serotonin receptors would reduce serotonin signaling, counteracting antidepressant effects. SSRIs and tricyclics increase serotonin availability via reuptake inhibition, not receptor blockade. This statement is inaccurate, as blocking serotonin receptors is not a mechanism of action for these depression treatments.
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