A client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis develops bleeding from the access site. What should the nurse do first?

Apply pressure to the bleeding site.

Elevate the arm above heart level.

Administer a prescribed antiplatelet medication.

Check the client's platelet count.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Correct. Applying pressure to the bleeding site is the first action to control the bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss.

B. Incorrect. Elevating the arm above heart level may not be effective in controlling bleeding from the access site and could cause unnecessary discomfort.

C. Incorrect. Administering a prescribed antiplatelet medication is not the first action to take when the client experiences bleeding from the access site, as it may further increase bleeding risk.

D. Incorrect. While checking the client's platelet count is important, it is not the first action to address active bleeding. Applying pressure to the bleeding site takes priority to control the bleeding.

QUESTIONS

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) This statement is incorrect. Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) are not used to prevent infections during dialysis. They are used to address anemia by stimulating red blood cell production.

B) This statement is accurate. Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) stimulate the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, addressing anemia commonly associated with chronic kidney disease and dialysis.

C) This statement is incorrect. Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) do not reduce the risk of blood clot formation. They are specific to stimulating the production of red blood cells.

D) This statement is incorrect. Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) do not enhance kidney function and filtration. They target the production of red blood cells to address anemia associated with ESRD and dialysis.

A. "Infection is a rare complication of peritoneal dialysis." B. "Infections can occur, but they are usually easy to treat with antibiotics." C. "You will need to take antibiotics regularly to prevent infection." D. "Infection is a common risk, so it is essential to maintain strict aseptic technique."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) This statement is incorrect. Infection is not a rare complication of peritoneal dialysis. It is a common risk that requires proactive measures to prevent.

B) This statement is incorrect. While infections can occur and may be treatable with antibiotics, it is essential to focus on prevention and maintaining aseptic technique.

C) This statement is incorrect. Taking antibiotics regularly to prevent infection is not the standard practice for clients on peritoneal dialysis. Antibiotics are typically prescribed to treat infections when they occur, not as a preventive measure.

D) This statement is accurate. Infection is a significant risk for clients on peritoneal dialysis due to the direct access to the peritoneal cavity through the catheter. Strict aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections.

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A client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis develops bleeding from the access site. What should the nurse do first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) as part of the dialysis treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication's purpose?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is providing education to a client who will be performing peritoneal dialysis at home. The client asks about the risk of infection. Which of the following responses by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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