A client with chronic pain is using aspirin regularly to control her pain symptoms. She presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, pale skin, afebrile, and a blood pressure (BP) of 83/45 mm Hg. Which type of shock is the client most likely experiencing?

Hypovolemic shock

Obstructive shock

Cardiogenic shock

Septic shock

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Pain-relieving medications may be appropriate for symptom management but do not address the need for diagnosis or treatment of gonorrhea exposure.
B. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of gonorrhea. Testing for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) requires specific diagnostic tests.
C. Obtaining information about the client's recent sexual experiences is crucial for assessing risk factors, guiding testing, and determining appropriate treatment for gonorrhea.
D. A pelvic ultrasound is not typically the initial step in managing gonorrhea exposure. It might be used to assess complications but is not relevant for initial assessment or treatment.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"E"}

Explanation

Pneumonia: The client is at risk for pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion and increased risk of aspiration, especially after abdominal surgery.

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): The client is at risk for DVT due to prolonged immobility and the increased risk of blood clots associated with surgery.

Urinary retention: The Foley catheter may interfere with the client's ability to void normally, increasing the risk of urinary retention.

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A client with chronic pain is using aspirin regularly to control her pain symptoms. She presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, pale skin, afebrile, and a blood pressure (BP) of 83/45 mm Hg. Which type of shock is the client most likely experiencing?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a 55-year-old client who is 2 hours postoperative after having a total abdominal hysterectomy. Exhibits Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at risk for developing dropdown,dropdownand dropdown

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"E"}

Explanation

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