A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
A drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min.
A change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10.
Headache.
Diplopia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Sweating and pallor are early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing rapid fluid shifts and hormonal changes. Sweating and pallor are caused by hypoglycemia, which occurs when the high concentration of food in the small intestine stimulates insulin secretion.
Choice B Reason: Abdominal cramping and pain are late signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which occur about one to three hours after eating. Abdominal cramping and pain are caused by intestinal distension, spasms, and gas formation.
Choice C Reason: Double vision and chest pain are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may indicate other serious conditions, such as stroke or heart attack. Double vision and chest pain should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice D Reason: Bradycardia and indigestion are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may be related to other gastrointestinal disorders, such as gastritis or peptic ulcer disease. Bradycardia and indigestion should be evaluated by the provider for further diagnosis and treatment.

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because submerging the client in a cold bath can cause hypothermia, shock, or infection. Cold water can lower the body temperature and blood pressure, which can impair circulation and organ function. Cold water can also introduce bacteria or contaminants into the open wounds. The nurse should use cool water or saline to gently irrigate the burned areas and then cover them with sterile dressings.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because administering oxygen can help the client breathe better and prevent hypoxia. Burns to the face, neck, or chest can cause swelling or damage to the airway, which can impair gas exchange and oxygen delivery. Oxygen can also reduce the risk of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can occur from inhaling smoke or fumes.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because restricting fluids can worsen dehydration and shock. Burns can cause significant fluid and electrolyte loss through evaporation and leakage from damaged capillaries. This can lead to hypovolemia, which is low blood volume, and hypotension, which is low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, urine output, and weight, and administer intravenous fluids as ordered.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because providing a meal high in fiber can cause abdominal discomfort or diarrhea. Burns can cause paralytic ileus, which is a temporary loss of bowel function due to nerve damage or inflammation. This can impair digestion and absorption of food and cause nausea, vomiting, or constipation. The nurse should assess the client's bowel sounds and provide enteral or parenteral nutrition as ordered.
Choice E Reason: This is correct because assessing airway is a priority nursing action for a client with burns. As mentioned above, burns to the face, neck, or chest can compromise the airway and cause respiratory distress or failure. The nurse should assess the client's level of consciousness, breathing rate and pattern, oxygen saturation, and signs of inhalation injury, such as sooty sputum, singed nasal hairs, or hoarseness. The nurse should also be prepared to assist with intubation or tracheostomy if needed.
Choice F Reason: This is correct because applying ice to burned areas can help reduce pain and swelling. Ice can constrict blood vessels and numb nerve endings, which can decrease inflammation and sensation. However, ice should be applied for no more than 15 minutes at a time and wrapped in a cloth or towel to prevent frostbite or tissue damage. Ice should not be applied to large or deep burns.

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