A nurse is caring for a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
A drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min.
A change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10.
Headache.
Diplopia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because administering IV ketorolac is not a priority intervention for a client with cholecystitis. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and kidney damage, which are contraindicated in cholecystitis. The nurse should administer analgesics as prescribed, but only after assessing the pain level and severity.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because reporting findings to healthcare provider is not a priority intervention for a client with cholecystitis. The nurse should communicate with the healthcare provider about the client's condition and treatment plan, but only after assessing the pain level and other vital signs.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because offering a high-calorie, high-fat meal is not an intervention for a client with cholecystitis, but a potential trigger. High-fat foods can stimulate the gallbladder to contract and cause more pain and inflammation. The nurse should advise the client to avoid fatty foods and follow a low-fat diet.
Choice D reason: This is the correct answer because assessing the pain level is a priority intervention for a client with cholecystitis. Pain is the most common symptom of cholecystitis and can indicate the severity and complications of the condition. The nurse should assess the pain level using a numeric or descriptive scale, and monitor for changes in location, intensity, and duration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because this describes a stupor, which is a state of near-unconsciousness or reduced responsiveness. A stuporous client shows minimal movement and verbal responses and requires extreme vigorous stimulation such as painful stimuli to awaken briefly.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because this describes obtundation, which is a state of reduced alertness or awareness. An obtunded client is extremely drowsy and minimally responsive and requires vigorous stimulation such as shaking or shouting to wake.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because this describes lethargy, which is a state of decreased energy or activity. A lethargic client is alert and oriented x3 (to person, place, and time), but sluggish and drowsy, and wakes to voice or gentle shaking.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because this describes a coma, which is a state of deep unconsciousness or unresponsiveness. A comatose client does not respond to verbal stimuli or speak and shows abnormal posturing in response to pain, such as decorticate (flexion of arms and extension of legs) or decerebrate (extension of arms and legs).
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.