A client with stage IV bone cancer is admitted to the hospital for pain control. The client verbalizes continuous, severe pain of 8 on a 0 to 10 scale. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Alternate IV and IM analgesic medications.
Administer opioid and non-opioid medication simultaneously.
Give maximum dosage when score reaches 10.
Educate client on signs and symptoms of narcotic dependency.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications may be appropriate for pain management in some situations but is not the best initial intervention for continuous, severe pain in a client with stage IV bone cancer.
B. Administering opioid and non-opioid medication simultaneously is an appropriate intervention for managing severe pain, as it addresses pain from multiple pathways and may provide more effective pain relief.
C. Giving maximum dosage when the pain score reaches 10 is not recommended, as it may lead to overmedication and increased risk of adverse effects. Pain management should be based on the client's reported pain intensity and individualized needs.
D. Educating the client on signs and symptoms of narcotic dependency is important but is not the priority intervention in this situation. Pain management and relief should be the immediate focus for the client's comfort and quality of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Teaching the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol is crucial for treating gonorrhea and preventing its spread to others. It addresses the immediate health concern and helps prevent further transmission.
B. While partners without symptoms may not show signs of infection, they could still be carriers of gonorrhea and should be tested and treated if necessary.
C. While using safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, it may not completely eliminate the risk, especially if a partner has multiple sexual partners.
D. While sexual intercourse is a common mode of transmission for STIs, not all STIs are transmitted exclusively through sexual intercourse.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Fentanyl and hydromorphone are potent opioids often used for pain management, but they are not typically first-line medications for acute chest pain associated with suspected myocardial infarction.
B. Hydromorphone, like fentanyl, is an opioid analgesic primarily used for moderate to severe pain but is not the first choice for managing acute chest pain.
C. Morphine is the medication of choice for managing acute chest pain associated with myocardial infarction. It helps alleviate pain, reduce myocardial oxygen demand, and relieve anxiety.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain but is not typically indicated as first-line therapy for acute chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.
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