A client with type 2 diabetes who has been prescribed metformin. The client asks the nurse how the medication will affect their kidneys. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
Metformin is generally safe for the kidneys but requires monitoring in case of renal impairment
Metformin is nephrotoxic and can directly damage your kidneys over time
Metformin increases the risk of kidney stones due to changes in urine composition
Metformin has no effect on the kidneys and does not require monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Metformin is safe for kidneys in patients with normal renal function but is excreted renally, requiring monitoring in chronic kidney disease (CKD). Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to metformin accumulation, increasing lactic acidosis risk. Regular renal function tests (e.g., creatinine, GFR) are needed, making this statement accurate.
Choice B reason: Metformin is not nephrotoxic; it does not directly damage kidneys. Its primary risk in renal impairment is lactic acidosis due to reduced clearance, not direct toxicity. This statement is inaccurate, as metformin is generally renal-safe when monitored appropriately in patients with adequate kidney function.
Choice C reason: Metformin does not increase kidney stone risk. It lowers blood glucose by reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving insulin sensitivity, without altering urinary composition linked to stones. Kidney stones are more associated with conditions like hyperuricemia or dehydration, making this statement inaccurate for metformin’s effects.
Choice D reason: Metformin requires renal function monitoring, as it is cleared by the kidneys. In renal impairment, accumulation can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication. This statement is inaccurate, as monitoring (e.g., eGFR) is essential to ensure safe use, especially in patients with kidney disease risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Antidepressants, like SSRIs or tricyclics, require 3-6 weeks to achieve full therapeutic effect due to gradual neuroplastic changes, including upregulation of serotonin or norepinephrine receptors. Initial synaptic monoamine increases take time to translate into mood improvement, making this statement accurate and reassuring for the patient.
Choice B reason: Expecting symptom improvement within 7 days is unrealistic, as antidepressants require weeks to alter brain chemistry effectively. Suggesting immediate follow-up implies treatment failure prematurely, which is inaccurate. Monitoring is needed, but this statement misrepresents the typical timeline for antidepressant efficacy.
Choice C reason: Lack of symptom relief in 5-7 days does not necessitate switching medications, as antidepressants typically take 3-6 weeks for effect. Early non-response does not indicate failure, as synaptic and receptor adaptations are gradual. This statement is inaccurate and may lead to unnecessary medication changes.
Choice D reason: Incomplete symptom relief at 7 days is normal, but stating remaining symptoms are permanent is inaccurate. Antidepressants often achieve partial or full response by 6-8 weeks, and adjustments can optimize outcomes. This statement is misleading, as it falsely suggests persistent symptoms are unchangeable.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Colorectal cancer may cause bleeding or pain but typically presents with mass lesions or obstruction, not a continuous pattern of mucosal lesions on X-ray. Its symptoms are less likely to remit and exacerbate cyclically, unlike inflammatory bowel diseases, making it less likely than ulcerative colitis.
Choice B reason: Crohn’s disease causes patchy, transmural bowel lesions, not continuous large bowel involvement. Its skip lesions and potential for small bowel involvement distinguish it from the continuous mucosal inflammation seen in ulcerative colitis, making this an inaccurate diagnosis for the described X-ray findings.
Choice C reason: Diverticulitis involves inflamed diverticula, typically causing localized pain and fever, not continuous large bowel lesions or bloody diarrhea with remissions. X-ray may show diverticula, but not diffuse mucosal involvement. This condition is less likely than ulcerative colitis given the described symptom pattern.
Choice D reason: Ulcerative colitis causes continuous mucosal inflammation in the large bowel, leading to bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and periods of exacerbation and remission. X-ray showing continuous lesions aligns with its diffuse colitis pattern, making this the most accurate diagnosis for the client’s symptoms and findings.
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