A client with type 2 diabetes who has been prescribed metformin. The client asks the nurse how the medication will affect their kidneys. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
Metformin is generally safe for the kidneys but requires monitoring in case of renal impairment
Metformin is nephrotoxic and can directly damage your kidneys over time
Metformin increases the risk of kidney stones due to changes in urine composition
Metformin has no effect on the kidneys and does not require monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Metformin is safe for kidneys in patients with normal renal function but is excreted renally, requiring monitoring in chronic kidney disease (CKD). Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to metformin accumulation, increasing lactic acidosis risk. Regular renal function tests (e.g., creatinine, GFR) are needed, making this statement accurate.
Choice B reason: Metformin is not nephrotoxic; it does not directly damage kidneys. Its primary risk in renal impairment is lactic acidosis due to reduced clearance, not direct toxicity. This statement is inaccurate, as metformin is generally renal-safe when monitored appropriately in patients with adequate kidney function.
Choice C reason: Metformin does not increase kidney stone risk. It lowers blood glucose by reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving insulin sensitivity, without altering urinary composition linked to stones. Kidney stones are more associated with conditions like hyperuricemia or dehydration, making this statement inaccurate for metformin’s effects.
Choice D reason: Metformin requires renal function monitoring, as it is cleared by the kidneys. In renal impairment, accumulation can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication. This statement is inaccurate, as monitoring (e.g., eGFR) is essential to ensure safe use, especially in patients with kidney disease risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Colorectal cancer may cause bleeding or pain but typically presents with mass lesions or obstruction, not a continuous pattern of mucosal lesions on X-ray. Its symptoms are less likely to remit and exacerbate cyclically, unlike inflammatory bowel diseases, making it less likely than ulcerative colitis.
Choice B reason: Crohn’s disease causes patchy, transmural bowel lesions, not continuous large bowel involvement. Its skip lesions and potential for small bowel involvement distinguish it from the continuous mucosal inflammation seen in ulcerative colitis, making this an inaccurate diagnosis for the described X-ray findings.
Choice C reason: Diverticulitis involves inflamed diverticula, typically causing localized pain and fever, not continuous large bowel lesions or bloody diarrhea with remissions. X-ray may show diverticula, but not diffuse mucosal involvement. This condition is less likely than ulcerative colitis given the described symptom pattern.
Choice D reason: Ulcerative colitis causes continuous mucosal inflammation in the large bowel, leading to bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and periods of exacerbation and remission. X-ray showing continuous lesions aligns with its diffuse colitis pattern, making this the most accurate diagnosis for the client’s symptoms and findings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ecchymosis, or bruising, may occur with a fracture due to soft tissue injury and bleeding but is not specific to fractures. It results from ruptured blood vessels in the skin, not bone disruption, and can occur in many trauma scenarios, making it less definitive than crepitus for fracture assessment.
Choice B reason: Crepitus, the grating sound or sensation from bone fragments rubbing together, is a hallmark of fractures. It occurs due to disrupted bone continuity, detectable during physical examination. This clinical manifestation is highly specific to fractures, making it the most accurate choice for a nurse’s assessment focus.
Choice C reason: Shock can occur with severe fractures due to blood loss or pain but is not a direct manifestation of the fracture itself. It reflects systemic response to trauma, not the localized bone injury, making it less specific than crepitus for identifying a fracture during assessment.
Choice D reason: Deformity is a common fracture sign due to bone misalignment but is not always present, especially in hairline or non-displaced fractures. Crepitus is more consistently detectable in physical exams, as it directly results from bone fragment movement, making it a more reliable clinical manifestation.
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