A client's current drug regimen includes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and a loop diuretic. What assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize?

heart rate

blood pressure

cognition

assessment for signs of bleeding

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. heart rate is not the primary concern when assessing the interaction between NSAIDs and loop diuretics.

B. blood pressure is correct; the combination of an NSAID and a loop diuretic can lead to fluid retention, potentially elevating blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this context.

C. cognition is not directly impacted by the combination of these medications.

D. assessment for signs of bleeding is important when taking NSAIDs due to their effect on platelet function, but the more immediate concern is the potential fluid retention affecting blood pressure.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Phenylephrine is a decongestant that can raise blood pressure, making it contraindicated for individuals with hypertension. Advising a patient with hypertension to avoid phenylephrine is essential to prevent potential cardiovascular complications.

B. While patients with diabetes should be cautious about certain medications, phenylephrine is not specifically contraindicated in this condition.

C. A 17-year-old female with an upper respiratory infection typically does not have contraindications for phenylephrine unless there are underlying conditions not mentioned.

D. Gout does not have a direct contraindication for phenylephrine use, so the patient may not need to avoid it unless other health issues are present.

A. Perform a blood sugar analysis. B. Have the client drink a 4-ounce (120-mL) glass of orange juice. C. Administer 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously. D. Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Performing a blood sugar analysis is important, but in the case of sudden symptoms such as weakness, shakiness, and dizziness, it is crucial to act quickly to address the potential hypoglycemia without delay.

B. Having the client drink a 4-ounce glass of orange juice is the most appropriate initial response as it provides a quick source of glucose to alleviate symptoms of hypoglycemia, which is a common concern in clients with type 1 diabetes experiencing these symptoms.

C. Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously is an effective treatment for hypoglycemia but is typically reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to consume oral glucose or is unconscious.

D. Administering 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously would exacerbate the problem by lowering blood sugar further and is contraindicated in a patient experiencing hypoglycemic symptoms.

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A client's current drug regimen includes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and a loop diuretic. What assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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