A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should base her actions on which of the following information? (Select all that apply.)
The student's asthma is not well controlled.
The nurse should obtain a second expiratory flow rate.
The student needs to go to the hospital.
The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A. The student's asthma is not well controlled: Being in the yellow zone indicates that the student's asthma is not well controlled and that their peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is lower than usual. This is a crucial point for the nurse to recognize, as it suggests that the student may need to adjust their management plan to prevent an exacerbation.
B. The nurse should obtain a second expiratory flow rate: While it can be helpful to reassess peak flow rates, it is not always necessary unless there is a concern about the accuracy of the initial measurement. The initial yellow zone result provides sufficient information for the nurse to take appropriate action regarding the student's asthma management.
C. The student needs to go to the hospital: Being in the yellow zone does not automatically require hospitalization. The yellow zone typically indicates that the student is experiencing some worsening of asthma symptoms but can often be managed at home with appropriate interventions. Hospitalization is usually reserved for the red zone, where severe symptoms or a significant decrease in peak flow occurs.
D. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler: This is an appropriate action for a student in the yellow zone. The yellow zone often indicates the need for the use of a quick-relief inhaler to alleviate symptoms and improve airflow. The nurse should advise the student to use their inhaler as per their asthma action plan.
E. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow: This statement accurately describes the yellow zone, where the peak flow is between 50% and 80% of the student's personal best. This information is essential for determining the appropriate response to the current asthma status and guides the nurse's actions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
- Clostridium difficile infection is likely because the client has pneumonia and is receiving ceftriaxone, an antibiotic known to disrupt gut flora and cause opportunistic infections like C. difficile. The presence of frequent, liquid, foul-smelling stools further supports this diagnosis.
- Myocardial infarction is unlikely because while the client has chest pain, it is pleuritic and related to inspiration rather than the typical crushing, non-pleuritic chest pain seen in an MI. There is no mention of radiating pain, diaphoresis, or hemodynamic instability.
- Pulmonary edema is unlikely since it typically presents with dyspnea, crackles throughout the lung fields, pink frothy sputum, and signs of fluid overload such as peripheral edema and weight gain. The client’s symptoms do not align with this condition.
- Pulmonary embolism is also unlikely, as it presents with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and often calf swelling or a history of deep vein thrombosis. The client lacks the risk factors and clinical signs of PE.
- Placing the client on contact precautions is necessary because C. difficile is highly contagious and spreads through the fecal-oral route. Gloves and gowns should be used to prevent transmission.
- Obtaining a stool culture is necessary to confirm the presence of C. difficile toxins in the stool, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
- Requesting a prescription for an anticoagulant is not necessary because the client does not show any signs of thromboembolic disease such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Anticoagulation could increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which would worsen the diarrhea.
- Requesting a prescription for a diuretic is not needed because the client is more likely to be dehydrated due to diarrhea. Diuretics would exacerbate fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances.
- Restricting fluids is not appropriate because dehydration is a major concern with C. difficile infection. Instead, fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent complications from excessive fluid loss.
- Level of consciousness should be monitored because severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to confusion, weakness, and altered mental status. While altered mental status can occur with severe dehydration or sepsis, it is not the primary concern at this stage.
- Potassium level should be monitored because diarrhea can cause significant potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can result in muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and fatigue.
- Urine output is not the most specific parameter for monitoring C. difficile infection. While dehydration is a concern, tracking electrolyte levels and neurological status is more critical.
- Calf swelling is not relevant since the client does not have signs or risk factors for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
- Weight: C. difficile infection can cause significant fluid loss due to persistent diarrhea, leading to dehydration and weight loss. Tracking daily weight helps assess hydration status and the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I feel frustrated when you interrupt me. It's important for us to take turns speaking during client discussions." This response demonstrates assertive behavior because it expresses the nurse's feelings directly and respectfully while addressing the specific behavior that is problematic. By focusing on "I feel" statements, the nurse communicates personal feelings without blaming or attacking the colleague. This approach encourages a constructive dialogue and promotes a more collaborative working relationship.
B. "If you keep interrupting me, I'll report you to our supervisor for disciplinary action." This response is not assertive; it is more aggressive and threatening. It shifts the focus from the behavior to a punitive action and can escalate conflict rather than fostering a constructive conversation. It may create defensiveness in the colleague and is unlikely to resolve the underlying issue.
C. "You always interrupt me when I'm talking. Can't you see how disrespectful that is?" This response is accusatory and confrontational, which is not assertive behavior. While it addresses the behavior, it does so in a way that may cause the colleague to become defensive or hostile. Effective assertiveness involves expressing feelings and needs without assigning blame or using harsh language.
D. "I can't work with someone who constantly takes over conversations. You need to find another partner." This statement is dismissive and aggressive, effectively shutting down communication rather than encouraging teamwork. It does not allow for resolution or discussion of the behavior, making it counterproductive in promoting effective collaboration. Assertive communication should focus on addressing issues while maintaining a willingness to work together.
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