A female client with multiple sclerosis is being treated with prednisone and the immunomodulator drug interferon B-1a to manage the condition. Which finding is the most important for the nurse to report to the provider?
The client has developed moon face.
The client complains of muscle spasticity.
The client drinks alcohol several days per week.
The client is taking birth control pills.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Moon face is a common side effect of prednisone, a corticosteroid medication. It results from fluid retention and redistribution of fat in the face. While moon face is a cosmetic concern, it is not typically an urgent or critical finding that requires immediate reporting.
B. Muscle spasticity may develop but does not pose an immediate risk that requires urgent attention.
C. Alcohol consumption can interact with both prednisone and interferon B-1a, potentially leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream and intensifying side effects. This interaction can also increase the risk of liver problems, which is particularly concerning given that interferon B-1a may cause liver issues.
D. Birth control pills have been a subject of debate regarding their effect on multiple sclerosis but a study found that oral hormonal contraceptives did not appear to be associated with an increased chance of MS relapses.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Carbidopa itself does not cross the blood-brain barrier. Its primary role in Sinemet is to inhibit the peripheral breakdown of levodopa (the precursor of dopamine) into dopamine before it reaches the brain.
B. It is true that it may take a few weeks to see the full effects of this medication, as the body needs time to adjust to it.
C. Parkinson's disease is progressive, and as the disease advances, the dosage and frequency of levodopa with carbidopa may need to be adjusted to maintain symptom control. Over time, higher doses or additional medications may be required to manage symptoms effectively.
D. Levodopa does not protect Carbidopa; rather, Carbidopa protects Levodopa from early conversion to dopamine outside the brain, which would make it less effective.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Defibrillation is not typically indicated for atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation involves disorganized electrical activity in the atria rather than a shockable rhythm like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, emergency defibrillation is not appropriate for a client with persistent atrial fibrillation.
B. CABG is a surgical procedure used to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries. It is primarily indicated for clients with significant coronary artery disease that cannot be managed effectively with medications or less invasive
C. Anticoagulant therapy, such as with medications like warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), is crucial for clients with atrial fibrillation. AFib predisposes individuals to an increased risk of stroke due to the potential formation of blood clots in the atria. Anticoagulants help prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of stroke.
D. Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are often used to manage fluid overload or congestion in conditions such as heart failure or volume overload. However, diuretic therapy alone does not address the underlying rhythm abnormality of atrial fibrillation.
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