A group of nurses are learning about the high incidence and prevalence of anemia among different populations. Which individual is most likely to have anemia?

A 13-year-old female who has just experienced menarche

An 81-year-old female who has chronic heart failure

A 48-year-old male who travels extensively and has a high-stress job

A 50-year-old female who is going through menopause

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: A 13-year-old female post-menarche may develop iron deficiency anemia due to menstrual blood loss, but this is less common unless heavy bleeding occurs. Adolescents generally have good iron stores unless dietary intake is poor, making anemia less likely compared to older adults with chronic conditions.

Choice B reason: An 81-year-old female with chronic heart failure is most likely to have anemia due to chronic disease, common in the elderly. Heart failure causes reduced tissue perfusion, inflammation, and possible renal impairment, all contributing to decreased erythropoiesis and anemia, making this the highest-risk profile.

Choice C reason: A 48-year-old male with a high-stress job may have mild anemia if stress affects diet or causes gastrointestinal bleeding, but this is less common. Without specific risk factors like blood loss or nutritional deficiency, his anemia risk is lower than that of an elderly patient with chronic illness.

Choice D reason: A 50-year-old female in menopause is less likely to have anemia, as cessation of menstruation reduces iron loss. While perimenopause may cause irregular bleeding, postmenopausal women typically have lower anemia risk unless other factors, like nutritional deficiencies or chronic diseases, are present.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Radioimmunoassay measures hormone levels, such as ADH, but is not the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It may confirm hormonal deficiencies but cannot visualize structural abnormalities like tumors, which are better assessed by imaging techniques like MRI, making it a secondary diagnostic tool in this context.

Choice B reason: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It provides detailed images of the pituitary gland, identifying structural abnormalities like tumors that may cause diabetes insipidus by disrupting ADH production. MRI is non-invasive and highly sensitive for detecting pituitary lesions, guiding further management.

Choice C reason: Radioactive iodine uptake tests assess thyroid function, not pituitary tumors. These tests are used for thyroid disorders like hyperthyroidism, which are unrelated to diabetes insipidus or pituitary pathology. They do not visualize the pituitary gland or confirm structural causes of ADH deficiency.

Choice D reason: A nuclear scan, such as a bone or thyroid scan, is not used to diagnose pituitary tumors. It assesses other conditions, like bone metastases or thyroid activity, but lacks specificity for pituitary imaging. MRI is the preferred modality for visualizing pituitary abnormalities causing diabetes insipidus.

A. Provide constant supervision B. Establish fall-prevention measures C. Encourage bed rest whenever possible D. Encourage the use of assistive devices

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Constant supervision is impractical and not the most effective way to reduce fall risk in Cushing syndrome. While supervision can help, it does not address environmental hazards or promote independence. Muscle weakness from corticosteroid-induced myopathy increases fall risk, making targeted prevention strategies more practical and effective.

Choice B reason: Fall-prevention measures, such as removing obstacles, ensuring adequate lighting, and using non-slip mats, directly address the risk of injury from muscle weakness in Cushing syndrome. These measures reduce environmental hazards and promote safety, effectively mitigating the risk of falls due to corticosteroid-induced myopathy and osteoporosis.

Choice C reason: Encouraging bed rest increases the risk of complications like muscle atrophy and thromboembolism in Cushing syndrome. Prolonged immobility exacerbates muscle weakness and bone loss, both already worsened by corticosteroids, making bed rest counterproductive to maintaining strength and reducing injury risk from falls.

Choice D reason: Assistive devices like canes or walkers can help, but they are not the primary strategy. Fall-prevention measures address environmental risks broadly, benefiting all patients with weakness. Devices are useful for severe mobility issues but are less comprehensive than environmental modifications for preventing falls in Cushing syndrome.

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A group of nurses are learning about the high incidence and prevalence of anemia among different populations. Which individual is most likely to have anemia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is suspected to have a pituitary tumor due to signs of diabetes insipidus. What initial test does the nurse help to prepare the client for?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse providing care for a client with Cushing syndrome has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for injury related to weakness. How should the nurse best reduce this risk?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in male clients and postmenopausal female clients is:

A client’s family member asks the nurse why disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs. Which statement by the nurse correctly explains the cause of DIC?

A preceptor discussing stroke with a new nurse on the unit would tell the new nurse that which cardiac dysrhythmia is associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes?

The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia?

The nurse is assessing a new client with reports of acute fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This client is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of hematologic disorder?

An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify clients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which ICU client most likely faces the highest risk of DIC?

A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Nursing care during the immediate recovery period from an ischemic stroke should normally prioritize which intervention?