A new mother of a newborn girl calls the clinic in a panic, concerned about the blood-tinged soiled diaper. What is the best response from the nurse?
This can be from the sudden withdrawal of your hormones. It's not a cause for alarm.
The baby may have a problem; let's schedule an appointment.
For now, just watch her. If this continues, call us back.
This can be related to cleaning her perineal area; be more careful.
The Correct Answer is A
This can be from the sudden withdrawal of your hormones. It's not a cause for alarm. This is because newborn female babies may have a little bloody vaginal discharge in their diaper due to the withdrawal of maternal hormones after delivery. This usually stops as the hormones return to normal levels¹².
Choice B is wrong because the baby does not need an appointment for this condition.
Choice C is wrong because the mother does not need to watch her baby for this condition.
Choice D is wrong because the blood is not related to cleaning her perineal area.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Precipitous birth
This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.
Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.
Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Fundus firm, at the level of the umbilicus. This is because the normal postpartum uterine fundus location should be around the belly button (umbilicus) one hour after delivery and then decrease by 1 cm per 24 hours. A firm fundus indicates that the uterus is contracting well and preventing bleeding.
Choice A is wrong because a soft fundus indicates uterine atony, which is a risk factor for hemorrhage.
Choice C is wrong because the fundus should not be above the umbilicus 12 hours after delivery.
Choice D is wrong because a fundus to the right of the umbilicus indicates a full bladder, which can displace the uterus and cause bleeding.
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