A newly admitted client has gained weight steadily over the past 2 years and the nurse recognizes the need for a nutritional assessment.
What assessment parameters should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Coping strategies.
Wrist circumference.
Clinical examination findings.
BMI.
Dietary data.
Correct Answer : C,D,E
Choice A rationale
Coping strategies are relevant to overall health and well-being, but they are not directly related to nutritional assessment. Nutritional assessments focus on physical and dietary data rather than psychological coping mechanisms.
Choice B rationale
Wrist circumference can be used as an anthropometric measure of body frame size, but it is not a standard parameter in a comprehensive nutritional assessment. More common measurements include height, weight, and BMI.
Choice C rationale
Clinical examination findings are critical in nutritional assessments to identify physical signs of malnutrition, such as muscle wasting, edema, or skin changes. These observations help assess the client’s nutritional status and needs.
Choice D rationale
BMI (Body Mass Index) is a widely used indicator of body fat based on height and weight. It helps classify individuals into categories like underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese, providing insight into nutritional health.
Choice E rationale
Dietary data, including food intake, preferences, and restrictions, are essential components of a nutritional assessment. Understanding a client's dietary habits allows the nurse to identify nutritional deficiencies or excesses and plan appropriate interventions
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intravenous phenobarbital can be used to treat status epilepticus, but it is not the first-line drug due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines. Rapid intervention is critical in status epilepticus, and phenobarbital is generally reserved for refractory cases.
Choice B rationale
Oral phenytoin is used for long-term control of seizures but is not effective for immediate cessation of status epilepticus. It takes longer to reach therapeutic levels and is not suitable for acute management.
Choice C rationale
Intravenous diazepam is a benzodiazepine with a rapid onset of action, making it effective in stopping seizures immediately. It enhances GABA activity, which has an inhibitory effect on neuronal firing, providing quick control of status epilepticus. This rapid effect is crucial for minimizing neuronal damage and other complications.
Choice D rationale
Oral lorazepam is effective for long-term management of seizures but is not appropriate for immediate treatment of status epilepticus. The oral route delays absorption and onset of action, making it unsuitable for acute seizure control. .
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Dryness of the eyes, or xerophthalmia, is a common symptom of keratoconjunctivitis. It indicates the involvement of the conjunctiva and cornea, often seen in conditions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Choice B rationale
Skin peeling on the eyelids suggests severe involvement of the ocular adnexa and can be a sign of advancing keratoconjunctivitis. This symptom reflects significant mucocutaneous damage.
Choice C rationale
Pruritus, or itching, is less specific for keratoconjunctivitis and more commonly associated with allergic reactions or less severe irritations. It is not a primary indicator of the disease's progression.
Choice D rationale
Burning of the eyes is a symptom of keratoconjunctivitis, indicating inflammation and irritation of the conjunctiva and cornea. This symptom helps in identifying the progression of the condition. .
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