A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?

A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease

A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight

A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant

A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason:

A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.

Choice B Reason:

A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.

Choice C Reason:

A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.

Choice D Reason:

A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Nonfat milk is generally considered safe for individuals with GERD. While full-fat dairy products can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to their high-fat content, nonfat milk does not have this effect. It is low in fat and unlikely to trigger acid reflux. Therefore, nonfat milk is not a food that needs to be avoided by someone with GERD.

Choice B Reason:

Apples are typically safe for individuals with GERD. In fact, non-citrus fruits like apples are often recommended as part of a GERD-friendly diet. They are low in acid and unlikely to cause reflux symptoms. Therefore, apples do not need to be avoided by someone with GERD.

Choice C Reason:

Chocolate is a common trigger for GERD symptoms. It contains caffeine and theobromine, both of which can relax the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), allowing stomach acid to escape into the esophagus and cause reflux. Additionally, chocolate is high in fat, which can further exacerbate GERD symptoms. Therefore, it is advisable for individuals with GERD to avoid chocolate to prevent worsening of their symptoms.

A. Client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked. B. Client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated. C. Client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12. D. Client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.

Choice B Reason:

The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Choice C Reason:

The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.

Choice D Reason:

The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.

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A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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