A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is F
Explanation
Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication
Choice A Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies vomiting
This choice is not directly related to the effectiveness of Kayexalate. Vomiting can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of vomiting does not indicate that the medication is working. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool, so the presence of bowel movements is a more direct indicator of its effectiveness.
Choice B Reason:
ECG: Flattening of QRS complex angle
Flattening of the QRS complex angle is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Hyperkalemia typically causes widening of the QRS complex, and effective treatment would normalize this. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice C Reason:
ECG: Widening of the QRS complex
Widening of the QRS complex is a sign of hyperkalemia, not its resolution. If the medication is effective, the QRS complex should return to a normal width. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice D Reason:
Assessment: Patient consumed 60% of meal
While nutritional intake is important, it is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of Kayexalate. The medication’s effectiveness is better assessed by changes in potassium levels and related symptoms, not by meal consumption.
Choice E Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies nausea
Similar to vomiting, nausea can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of nausea does not indicate that the medication is working. The effectiveness of Kayexalate is better assessed by the presence of bowel movements and changes in potassium levels.
Choice F Reason:
Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication
This is the correct answer. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool. The presence of bowel movements indicates that the medication is working to remove potassium from the body. This is a direct and relevant assessment finding.
Choice G Reason:
ECG: Shortening of P wave duration
Shortening of the P wave duration is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice H Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies pain
Pain is not a typical symptom of hyperkalemia, and its absence does not indicate that the medication is working. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice I Reason:
ECG: Reduction of T wave amplitude
Reduction of T wave amplitude can be a sign of hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Effective treatment of hyperkalemia would normalize the T wave amplitude, not reduce it. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Nonfat milk is generally considered safe for individuals with GERD. While full-fat dairy products can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to their high-fat content, nonfat milk does not have this effect. It is low in fat and unlikely to trigger acid reflux. Therefore, nonfat milk is not a food that needs to be avoided by someone with GERD.
Choice B Reason:
Apples are typically safe for individuals with GERD. In fact, non-citrus fruits like apples are often recommended as part of a GERD-friendly diet. They are low in acid and unlikely to cause reflux symptoms. Therefore, apples do not need to be avoided by someone with GERD.
Choice C Reason:
Chocolate is a common trigger for GERD symptoms. It contains caffeine and theobromine, both of which can relax the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), allowing stomach acid to escape into the esophagus and cause reflux. Additionally, chocolate is high in fat, which can further exacerbate GERD symptoms. Therefore, it is advisable for individuals with GERD to avoid chocolate to prevent worsening of their symptoms.
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