A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Title: Choice A Reason:
Patients with seafood allergies may have a higher risk of allergic reactions to iodinated contrast media used in CT scans. However, this is not a definitive contraindication. The nurse should inform the patient to notify their healthcare provider about any known allergies, including seafood, as a precautionary measure. This allows the healthcare team to take necessary steps to prevent any adverse reactions, such as premedication with antihistamines or corticosteroids.
Title: Choice B Reason:
Metformin is a common medication used to manage type II diabetes. When a patient is scheduled for a CT scan with IV contrast, it is crucial to withhold Metformin before the procedure. This is because the combination of Metformin and iodinated contrast can increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) and lactic acidosis, a rare but serious condition. The general recommendation is to stop Metformin at the time of or prior to the procedure and withhold it for 48 hours after the procedure, resuming only after renal function has been re-evaluated and found to be normal.
Title: Choice C Reason:
CT scans, especially those requiring IV contrast, are typically performed in a radiology suite equipped with the necessary technology and medical personnel. Performing such a procedure at the bedside is uncommon and not standard practice due to the need for specialized equipment and immediate access to emergency care in case of adverse reactions. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Title: Choice D Reason:
Taking Metformin as usual before the test is not recommended due to the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with iodinated contrast. As previously mentioned, Metformin should be withheld before and after the procedure until renal function is confirmed to be normal. This precaution helps to prevent any potential complications associated with the interaction between Metformin and the contrast agent.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Elevating the head of the client’s bed can help reduce blood pressure slightly by promoting venous return and decreasing intracranial pressure. However, this action alone is not sufficient to address the severe hypertension (254/139 mm Hg) the client is experiencing. Immediate medical intervention is required to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage.
Choice B reason:
Contacting the Rapid Response Team is the highest priority action. The Rapid Response Team is trained to handle critical situations and can provide immediate interventions to stabilize the client’s condition. Severe hypertension at this level requires urgent medical attention to prevent life-threatening complications. The team can administer medications to lower blood pressure quickly and monitor the client closely.
Choice C reason:
Telling the client to report vision changes is important because vision changes can indicate hypertensive retinopathy or increased intracranial pressure. However, this action is not the immediate priority. The client’s blood pressure needs to be controlled urgently to prevent further complications.
Choice D reason:
Inserting a peripheral IV is necessary for administering medications and fluids. While this is an important step, it should follow the immediate action of contacting the Rapid Response Team. The team can then use the IV access to administer antihypertensive medications promptly.
Choice E reason:
Initiating seizure precautions is important because severe hypertension can lead to seizures. However, this action is not the first priority. The primary focus should be on stabilizing the client’s blood pressure through immediate medical intervention.
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