A nurse is providing pneumonia vaccinations in a community setting. Due to limited finances, the event organizers must limit giving the vaccination to priority groups. What clients would be considered a priority when administering the pneumonia vaccination? (Select all that apply)
A 22-year-old client with asthma
A healthy 72-year-old client
A client with well-controlled diabetes
A client who is taking medication for hypertension
A client who had a cholecystectomy last year
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A reason: A 22-year-old client with asthma is considered a priority for pneumonia vaccination. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that can increase the risk of complications from pneumonia. Vaccination helps protect against pneumococcal infections, which can be particularly severe in individuals with underlying respiratory conditions.
Choice B reason: A healthy 72-year-old client is also a priority for pneumonia vaccination. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends pneumococcal vaccination for all adults aged 65 years and older. Older adults are at higher risk for pneumococcal disease due to age-related decline in immune function.
Choice C reason: A client with well-controlled diabetes should be prioritized for pneumonia vaccination. Diabetes can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections, including pneumonia. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for individuals with chronic health conditions.
Choice D reason: A client who is taking medication for hypertension is not necessarily a priority for pneumonia vaccination based solely on their hypertension. While hypertension is a common condition, it does not directly increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. However, if the client has other risk factors or comorbidities, they may still be considered for vaccination.
Choice E reason: A client who had a cholecystectomy last year is not a priority for pneumonia vaccination based on this surgical history alone. A cholecystectomy, which is the removal of the gallbladder, does not increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. Priority for vaccination is typically given to individuals with chronic health conditions, older adults, and those with weakened immune systems.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Adherence to proper hand hygiene
Proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing any aseptic procedures. This practice helps to reduce the transmission of pathogens that can cause infections in mechanically ventilated patients. Studies have shown that adherence to hand hygiene protocols significantly decreases the incidence of VAP and other healthcare-associated infections.
Choice B Reason: Suction the client at least every 2 hours
While suctioning is an important aspect of care for mechanically ventilated patients, routine suctioning every 2 hours is not recommended. Instead, suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical condition and as needed. Over-suctioning can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice C Reason: Administering antiulcer medication
Administering antiulcer medication is a recommended practice to prevent stress ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding in mechanically ventilated patients. Stress ulcers can lead to complications such as aspiration of gastric contents, which can contribute to the development of VAP. Antiulcer medications, such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists, help to reduce gastric acidity and the risk of ulcer formation. This practice is part of the comprehensive care plan to prevent VAP.
Choice D Reason: Providing oral care per protocol
Providing oral care per protocol is a critical component of VAP prevention. Oral care involves cleaning the patient’s mouth, teeth, and gums to reduce the colonization of harmful bacteria that can be aspirated into the lungs. Protocols for oral care typically include the use of antiseptic solutions, such as chlorhexidine, to disinfect the oral cavity. Regular oral care has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.
Choice E Reason: Elevating the head of the bed
Elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees is a recommended practice to prevent VAP. This position helps to reduce the risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, which is a major risk factor for VAP. Elevating the head of the bed also promotes better lung expansion and ventilation, which can improve the patient’s respiratory status. This practice is widely recognized as an effective measure to prevent VAP.
Choice F Reason: Suctioning the client on a regular schedule
Similar to Choice B, routine suctioning on a regular schedule is not recommended. Suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical needs and not on a fixed schedule. Over-suctioning can cause harm and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice G Reason: Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours
Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours is an important practice to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to promote lung expansion. Regular repositioning helps to improve ventilation and drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP. This practice is part of the standard care for mechanically ventilated patients to prevent various complications, including VAP.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Choice A: Monitor for hypernatremia.
Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels in the blood, is a common complication of diabetes insipidus due to excessive water loss and insufficient water intake. Monitoring for hypernatremia involves regular blood tests to check sodium levels. Symptoms of hypernatremia include extreme thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Early detection and management are crucial to prevent severe complications.
Choice B: Monitor neuro status.
Monitoring neurological status is essential in patients with diabetes insipidus because severe hypernatremia can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, irritability, seizures, and even coma. Regular assessments of mental status, level of consciousness, and neurological function help in early detection of complications and timely intervention.
Choice C: Monitor for hyponatremia.
While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is less common in diabetes insipidus, it can occur if there is excessive water intake without adequate sodium replacement. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and seizures. Monitoring sodium levels helps in maintaining a balance and preventing complications.
Choice D: Monitor urine specific gravity.
Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. In diabetes insipidus, urine is typically very dilute, with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Regular monitoring helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s hydration status. It also aids in differentiating diabetes insipidus from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Choice E: Monitor strict I&O.
Strict monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is crucial in managing diabetes insipidus. This involves accurately measuring all fluids consumed and excreted to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance. It helps in identifying trends in fluid loss and guiding appropriate fluid replacement therapy.
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