A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?
Atrial fibrillation.
Hypertension.
Diabetes.
Alcohol abuse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because this describes a stupor, which is a state of near-unconsciousness or reduced responsiveness. A stuporous client shows minimal movement and verbal responses and requires extreme vigorous stimulation such as painful stimuli to awaken briefly.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because this describes obtundation, which is a state of reduced alertness or awareness. An obtunded client is extremely drowsy and minimally responsive and requires vigorous stimulation such as shaking or shouting to wake.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because this describes lethargy, which is a state of decreased energy or activity. A lethargic client is alert and oriented x3 (to person, place, and time), but sluggish and drowsy, and wakes to voice or gentle shaking.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because this describes a coma, which is a state of deep unconsciousness or unresponsiveness. A comatose client does not respond to verbal stimuli or speak and shows abnormal posturing in response to pain, such as decorticate (flexion of arms and extension of legs) or decerebrate (extension of arms and legs).
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Obtaining the client's blood glucose every 12 hr is not enough, as the nurse should monitor it more frequently, at least every 4 to 6 hr, to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. TPN is a high-glucose solution that can affect the blood sugar levels.
Choice B Reason: Changing the IV site dressing every 4 days is not enough, as the nurse should change it daily or as needed to prevent infection. TPN is a high-risk solution that can introduce microorganisms into the bloodstream.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Changing the IV tubing every 24 hr is recommended to prevent infection and maintain sterility. TPN is a complex solution that can support bacterial growth and contamination.
Choice D Reason: Weighing the client every other day is not enough, as the nurse should weigh the client daily to evaluate fluid balance and nutritional status. TPN can cause fluid retention or depletion, as well as weight gain or loss.
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