A nurse is teaching a client about diagnostic vision tests. The nurse should include that which of the following tests is performed to diagnose macular degeneration?
Amsler grid.
Snellen chart.
Intraocular pressure.
Refraction test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because the Amsler grid test is performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Amsler grid is a pattern of straight lines with a dot in the center. The client is asked to look at the dot and report any distortions or missing areas in the grid. This can indicate damage to the macula, which is the central part of the retina that provides sharp vision.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the Snellen chart test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Snellen chart is a chart of letters of different sizes that are read from a distance. The client is asked to read the smallest line they can see clearly. This can indicate visual acuity or sharpness of vision, but not macular degeneration.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the intraocular pressure test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The intraocular pressure test measures the pressure inside the eye using a device called a tonometer. The client may feel a puff of air or a gentle touch on their eye. This can indicate glaucoma, which is a condition where increased pressure damages the optic nerve, but not macular degeneration.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the refraction test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The refraction test measures how well the eye bends light rays using a device called a phoropter. The client looks through different lenses and reports which ones make their vision clearer. This can indicate refractive errors such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism, but not macular degeneration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The burned area is yellow in color with severe edema is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a superficial partial-thickness burn. A superficial partial-thickness burn involves the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, causing pain, redness, swelling, and blistering.
Choice B Reason: The burned area is black in color and pain is absent is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a full-thickness burn. A full-thickness burn involves the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues, causing necrosis, charred skin, and loss of sensation.
Choice C Reason:This description aligns with a superficial partial-thickness (first-degree or mild second-degree) burn rather than a deep partial-thickness burn. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. These burns appear pink or red, often accompanied by moisture and blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged capillaries. They are painful because nerve endings remain intact. Healing occurs within 10 to 21 days without significant scarring.
Choice D Reason:Deep partial-thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, damaging a larger portion of skin structures, including sweat glands and hair follicles. These burns typically appear red or white and may have a soft eschar (dead tissue), which differentiates them from more superficial burns that do not develop eschar. Unlike full-thickness burns, nerve endings remain partially intact, so the patient may still experience some pain. These burns take more than 21 days to heal and often require skin grafting to prevent complications such as contractures or hypertrophic scarring.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
The correct answers are b, d, and e.
Choice A: Slurred speech.
Slurred speech can be associated with increased ICP due to the pressure effects on the brain areas responsible for speech production. However, it is not typically considered a late sign of increased ICP. It may occur earlier in the progression as the brain's ability to coordinate muscle movements is affected.
Choice B: Bradycardia with a bounding pulse.
Bradycardia with a bounding pulse is a classic sign of Cushing's triad, which is a late and ominous sign of significantly increased ICP. It indicates that the body is attempting to increase arterial blood pressure to overcome the increased ICP and maintain cerebral perfusion. The normal range for adult heart rate is 60-100 beats per minute.
Choice C: Confusion.
Confusion can be an early sign of increased ICP as it can indicate changes in cerebral function. However, it is not specifically a late sign of increased ICP. Early signs of increased ICP can include headache, nausea, and confusion, as the brain is initially responding to the pressure changes.
Choice D: Hypertension with an increasing pulse pressure.
Hypertension with an increasing pulse pressure is another component of Cushing's triad. It reflects the body's compensatory mechanism to preserve cerebral blood flow in the face of rising ICP. An increasing pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure) is a late sign of increased ICP. Normal pulse pressure is typically 30-40 mm Hg.
Choice E: Nonreactive dilated pupils.
Nonreactive dilated pupils are a late sign of increased ICP and indicate pressure on the cranial nerves that control pupil size and reaction to light. This is a grave sign and often indicates impending brain herniation.
Choice F: Hypotension with a decreasing pulse pressure.
Hypotension with a decreasing pulse pressure is not typically associated with increased ICP. In fact, hypertension with a widening pulse pressure would be more indicative of increased ICP as part of Cushing's triad.
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