A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr
A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain
A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
- A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain may not need immediate assessment, unless there are signs of increased pain or other complications. The nurse can document the medication administration and observe the client’s response.
- A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag may not need immediate assessment, unless there are signs of fluid overload or electrolyte imbalance. The nurse can monitor the client’s fluid intake and output, weight, blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and laboratory values.
- A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level need immediate assessment to reassess for persistent hypoglycemia
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect. A residual of 65 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying, but it alone does not directly correlate with an increased risk of aspiration unless it leads to significant overdistension or the client is unable to tolerate further feedings.
B. Incorrect. Sitting in high Fowler's position during feeding is actually a preventive measure against aspiration.
C. Correct. his factor increases the risk for aspiration. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) are more prone to refluxing contents from the stomach into the esophagus, which can lead to aspiration, especially during or after feedings.
D. Incorrect. The osmolarity of the formula might affect tolerance but is not directly related to aspiration risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This is a stimulant laxative that works by increasing the movement of the intestines, helping the stool to come out. However, given the client's third-degree perineal laceration, a rectal suppository might cause discomfort and potentially disrupt the healing process.
B. Incorrect. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication and is not appropriate for constipation relief.
C. This is an osmotic laxative that works by drawing water into the intestines, which helps to soften the stool and stimulate bowel movements. It is taken orally and would not interfere with the healing of the perineal laceration.
D. Incorrect. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid and is not indicated for constipation relief.
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