A nurse is administering a unit of RBC 350 mL over 3 hr to a client who has anemia. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
The Correct Answer is ["117"]
The correct answer is 117 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 350 mL, the time of infusion is 3 hr, and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (350 mL / 3 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 116.67 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 117 mL/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Obtaining a type and crossmatch is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a preparatory step for blood transfusion, which may or may not be needed. The nurse should first identify the cause and severity of the hypotension, and initiate immediate interventions to stop the bleeding and restore the circulation.
Choice B reason: Administering oxytocin infusion is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the uterine tone and bleeding. The nurse should first evaluate the firmness of the uterus and massage it if needed, to stimulate the contraction and retraction of the uterine muscle.
Choice C reason: Initiating oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that aims to improve the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs. The nurse should first address the underlying cause of the hypotension, which is most likely postpartum hemorrhage, and prevent further blood loss and shock.
Choice D reason: Evaluating the firmness of the uterus is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can help determine the source and extent of the bleeding, and guide the subsequent interventions. The nurse should palpate the fundus and check the lochia, and report any signs of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
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