A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Instruct the client to take pain-relieving medications.

Collect a basic metabolic panel (BMP) specimen from the client.

Obtain information about the client's recent sexual experiences.

Inform the client about pelvic ultrasound procedure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Pain-relieving medications may be appropriate for symptom management but do not address the need for diagnosis or treatment of gonorrhea exposure.
B. A basic metabolic panel (BMP) is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of gonorrhea. Testing for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) requires specific diagnostic tests.
C. Obtaining information about the client's recent sexual experiences is crucial for assessing risk factors, guiding testing, and determining appropriate treatment for gonorrhea.
D. A pelvic ultrasound is not typically the initial step in managing gonorrhea exposure. It might be used to assess complications but is not relevant for initial assessment or treatment.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.

A. Hypovolemic shock B. Obstructive shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure, pale skin, and abdominal pain due to significant fluid loss or hemorrhage. The client's symptoms, including hypotension and abdominal pain, suggest a reduction in blood volume potentially caused by gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which is consistent with chronic aspirin use.
B. Obstructive shock is due to a physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a pulmonary embolism or cardiac tamponade, which does not directly correlate with the client's presentation of symptoms.
C. Cardiogenic shock results from severe heart failure and is typically accompanied by signs of heart dysfunction, not just low blood pressure and abdominal pain.
D. Septic shock is associated with infection and systemic inflammation, often presenting with fever and other signs of infection, which the client is not exhibiting.

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who was exposed to gonorrhea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with chronic pain is using aspirin regularly to control her pain symptoms. She presents to the hospital with abdominal pain, pale skin, afebrile, and a blood pressure (BP) of 83/45 mm Hg. Which type of shock is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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