A nurse in an acute mental health facility observes a client having a panic atack. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack.
Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies
Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing
Administer an anti-anxiety medication
The Correct Answer is C
c. Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing.
When a client is experiencing a panic atack, the nurse's first priority is to help the client manage their symptoms and provide immediate relief. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing is the most appropriate initial intervention.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack. While discussing the client's feelings can be beneficial in addressing the underlying causes of anxiety, it may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic atack. The client's focus during a panic atack is typically on managing the physical symptoms and regaining control.
b. Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies. Positive self-talk can be helpful in managing anxiety in general, but during a panic atack, the individual may have difficulty engaging in positive self-talk due to the intensity of symptoms. Addressing the immediate physical symptoms is a priority before exploring coping strategies.
d. Administer an anti-anxiety medication. Medication administration may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing a panic atack. Non-pharmacological interventions, such as breathing techniques, should be implemented first. If the panic atack persists or worsens despite these interventions, medication may be considered.
In summary, during a panic atack, the immediate focus should be on helping the client manage their symptoms. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing can help promote relaxation and reduce the intensity of the panic atack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
b. Migraines with aura.
Explanation:
Migraines with aura are considered a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives. Auras are neurological symptoms that occur before or during migraines and can include visual disturbances, sensory changes, or speech difficulties. Women who experience migraines with aura have an increased risk of ischemic stroke when taking oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important to identify this condition as a contraindication and explore alternative contraceptive options for the client.
The other options (a. History of renal calculus, c. BMI of 25, d. History of cholecystectomy) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
b. A decreased level of consciousness and vomiting
Explanation:
When receiving report on four clients, the nurse should first collect data about the client who has a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. This combination of symptoms suggests a potentially serious condition that requires immediate atention and assessment. It could indicate a neurological or gastrointestinal issue, and further evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Cellulitis accompanied by a low-grade fever:
While cellulitis and a low-grade fever require atention, they are not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should prioritize assessing the client with altered consciousness and vomiting due to the potential for more urgent interventions.
c. A pain rating of 7 on a scale from 0 to 10 after receiving analgesia 30 min ago:
Although the client's pain rating of 7 indicates ongoing pain, it is not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should first address the client with altered consciousness to determine the cause and provide appropriate interventions before assessing and managing pain in other clients.
d. Type 2 diabetes mellitus and a blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL:
While elevated blood glucose levels in a client with type 2 diabetes require atention and management, they are not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should first assess the client with altered consciousness to identify the cause and provide prompt interventions.
In summary, when receiving report on four clients, the nurse should first collect data about the client who has a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. These symptoms indicate a potentially serious condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
