A nurse in a community clinic is counseling a client who has been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection. What advice should the nurse provide?
You have to avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
You need to return in 6 months for retesting.
This infection is treated with one dose of erythromycin.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Avoiding sexual relations for 3 days is not sufficient advice for a client diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). The client should abstain from sexual activity until they and their partner(s) have completed treatment and are symptom-free.
Choice B rationale
Even if a sexual partner has no symptoms, they could still be infected and require treatment. Many STIs can be asymptomatic, meaning they do not show symptoms, but can still be transmitted to others.
Choice C rationale
Returning in 6 months for retesting is a good practice for individuals diagnosed with an STI. Some infections, like chlamydia and gonorrhea, should be retested about 3 months after treatment. Other infections, like HIV, might need a follow-up test 6 months later to confirm the results.
Choice D rationale
The treatment for STIs varies depending on the specific infection. Not all STIs are treated with a single dose of erythromycin. For example, gonorrhea is typically treated with an injection of ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A headache that lasts for 2 days and is not relieved by Tylenol is a concerning symptom in a pregnant client. This could be a sign of preeclampsia, a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby. Severe headaches are a common symptom of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
Choice B rationale: Blurred vision and dizziness are also symptoms of preeclampsia. These symptoms occur as a result of changes in the blood vessels in the brain due to high blood pressure. The brain relies on a healthy blood supply to function properly, and any disruption to this can lead to symptoms such as blurred vision and dizziness. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as they may indicate a need for immediate treatment or monitoring.
Choice C rationale: While swelling of the feet is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and increased blood flow, it is not typically a symptom that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider unless it is accompanied by other symptoms of preeclampsia or other complications. Swelling in the face and hands is more concerning than swelling in the feet.
Choice D rationale: 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities is a sign of fluid overload in the body, which can be a symptom of preeclampsia. This should be reported to the healthcare provider as it may indicate a need for treatment or closer monitoring.
Choice E rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of 3+ and absent clonus are within normal limits for a pregnant client. Hyperreflexia (reflexes rated as 4+) and the presence of clonus could indicate neurological irritability associated with preeclampsia, but these findings are not present in this client.
Choice F rationale: Fetal heart tones of 150/min are within the normal range of 110-160 beats per minute. This is a reassuring sign and does not need to be reported to the healthcare provider.
Choice G rationale: A blood pressure of 180/99 mm Hg is significantly elevated and is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. This should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as it indicates severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate treatment to prevent complications such as eclampsia, placental abruption, and organ damage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is an antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections, but it is not typically the first line of treatment for herpes.
Choice B rationale
Penicillin G intravenously is a type of antibiotic that is often used to treat bacterial infections. However, herpes is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.
Choice C rationale
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat herpes infections. It works by slowing the growth and spread of the herpes virus in the body. This would be the most appropriate treatment for a patient presenting with symptoms of a herpes outbreak.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a type of corticosteroid that is often used to reduce inflammation. While it might help to reduce some of the inflammation and discomfort associated with herpes lesions, it would not address the underlying viral infection.
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