A nurse in a family health clinic is caring for a client who requests information regarding the correct use of condoms.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Use of a petroleum-based lubricant with a condom increases the condom's effectiveness."
"When using implanted contraceptive methods, condoms should also be used to protect against STDs."
"Condoms are equally effective for birth control with or without the use of vaginal spermicides."
"Ensure that the condom fits snugly over the tip of the penis." .
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B: "When using implanted contraceptive methods, condoms should also be used to protect against STDs."
Choice B rationale: While implanted contraceptive methods are highly effective in preventing unintended pregnancies, they do not provide protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Therefore, using condoms in conjunction with implanted contraceptives can enhance overall sexual health by reducing the risk of contracting or transmitting STDs. This statement highlights the nurse's understanding of the importance of comprehensive sexual health practices and the limitations of various contraceptive methods.
Choice A rationale: The use of petroleum-based lubricants with condoms can actually compromise their effectiveness. Petroleum-based lubricants can degrade latex condoms, increasing the likelihood of condom breakage or slippage, which in turn raises the risk of both pregnancy and STD transmission.
Choice C rationale: Condoms are indeed effective in preventing pregnancy, but their effectiveness can be enhanced by using them in conjunction with vaginal spermicides. Spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 can provide additional protection by inactivating or killing sperm, thus reducing the risk of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale: Ensuring a proper fit is crucial for a condom's effectiveness, but the statement only emphasizes the condom fitting snugly over the tip of the penis. For optimal protection, a condom should be unrolled to cover the entire erect penis, leaving a small empty space at the tip for semen collection. A condom that is not unrolled completely may be more likely to slip off or break during intercourse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Depression commonly coexists with eating disorders. Patients with eating disorders often experience profound sadness, hopelessness, and a distorted body image, leading to depressive symptoms. Addressing both conditions simultaneously is crucial for effective treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) frequently accompanies eating disorders. Obsessive thoughts about body weight, shape, and food intake are common in individuals with eating disorders. These obsessions can lead to compulsive behaviors, such as strict dietary rules or excessive exercise, reinforcing the connection between eating disorders and OCD.
Choice C rationale:
Schizophrenia is not typically considered a comorbidity of eating disorders. Schizophrenia involves distorted thinking, hallucinations, and impaired emotional responses, which are distinct from the symptoms of eating disorders. While it's essential to assess patients comprehensively, schizophrenia is not a common comorbidity of eating disorders.
Choice D rationale:
Breathing-related sleep disorder is not a direct comorbidity of eating disorders. However, individuals with severe eating disorders, especially anorexia nervosa, may experience complications like sleep apnea due to extreme weight loss. While this is a potential issue, it is not a direct comorbidity of eating disorders for all patients.
Choice E rationale:
Anxiety often coexists with eating disorders. Anxiety about body weight, shape, and food intake is a significant concern for individuals with eating disorders. This anxiety can further perpetuate disordered eating behaviors, creating a cycle that is challenging to break without addressing the underlying anxiety.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Crackles in the lungs are a common manifestation of heart failure. Heart failure can cause fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to crackles upon auscultation. This finding is due to pulmonary congestion and is indicative of heart failure exacerbation.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased thirst is not a typical manifestation of heart failure. In fact, patients with heart failure often experience increased thirst due to fluid shifts and increased blood volume, leading to increased urine output and dehydration.
Choice C rationale:
Poor skin turgor is not a specific manifestation of heart failure. Skin turgor is commonly assessed to determine hydration status, but it is not directly related to heart failure.
Choice D rationale:
Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is a common manifestation of heart failure. The heart beats faster to compensate for its decreased pumping efficiency. Tachycardia helps maintain cardiac output, but it is not a primary cause of heart failure; instead, it is a physiological response to the condition.
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