A nurse in a family health clinic is collecting data as part of a routine physical examination of a client who is about to enter high school. The nurse observes an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. The nurse should expect the provider to document which of the following disorders?
Scoliosis
Ankylosis
Kyphosis
Lordosis
The Correct Answer is A
A. Scoliosis: Scoliosis is characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, commonly detected during routine physical exams in school-aged children and adolescents. This is the correct diagnosis for the described symptom.
B. Ankylosis: Ankylosis refers to joint stiffness or immobility due to fusion of the bones, not a lateral curvature of the spine. It is typically associated with conditions like ankylosing spondylitis and does not describe a spinal curvature.
C. Kyphosis: Kyphosis involves an abnormal forward curvature of the spine, often resulting in a hunchback appearance. It is not the same as a lateral curvature and thus does not fit the description given.
D. Lordosis: Lordosis is characterized by an exaggerated inward curve of the lower spine, commonly referred to as swayback. It does not involve lateral curvature and therefore is not relevant to the described condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Methylprednisolone: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation in the airways. While effective in managing asthma, it has a slower onset of action and is used for longer-term management rather than immediate relief in acute situations.
B. Montelukast: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term control of asthma symptoms. It is not effective for immediate relief during an acute asthma attack because it takes time to exert its effects.
C. Albuterol: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that provides rapid bronchodilation. It is the first-line medication for immediate relief of bronchospasm during an acute asthma attack, making it the most appropriate choice for immediate administration.
D. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term asthma management and prevention of exacerbations. It is not suitable for immediate relief of an acute asthma attack as it does not act quickly enough to relieve bronchospasm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Rotavirus: The rotavirus vaccine is recommended for infants at 2, 4, and possibly 6 months of age, depending on the vaccine formulation. It helps protect against rotavirus, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration in infants.
B. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR): The MMR vaccine is not given until 12-15 months of age. It is not part of the vaccination schedule for a 4-month-old infant.
C. Varicella (VAR): The varicella vaccine is typically administered at 12-15 months of age. It is not appropriate for a 4-month-old infant.
D. Influenza: The influenza vaccine is recommended annually starting at 6 months of age. A 4-month-old is too young to receive the influenza vaccine.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.