A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about vaginal yeast infections. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Treatment for vaginal yeast infections must be prescribed by the provider."

"Vaginal yeast infections present as a thick, white discharge."

"The use of oral contraceptives will decrease the risk for vaginal yeast infections."

"There is usually no itching with vaginal yeast infections as the fungus does not invade the vaginal wall."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   "Treatment for vaginal yeast infections must be prescribed by the provider." This statement is correct because antifungal medications, which are required to treat vaginal yeast infections, are prescription-based.
B.   "Vaginal yeast infections present as a thick, white discharge." While this is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections, it alone is not sufficient for diagnosis.
C.   "The use of oral contraceptives will decrease the risk for vaginal yeast infections." This statement is incorrect because oral contraceptives may sometimes increase the risk of vaginal yeast infections.

D.   "There is usually no itching with vaginal yeast infections as the fungus does not invade the vaginal wall." This statement is incorrect because itching is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections due to irritation caused by the overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Schilling test. The symptoms described are suggestive of pernicious anemia, which is typically diagnosed through a Schilling test to assess vitamin B12 absorption.
B. Erythrocyte Indices. Erythrocyte indices are used to evaluate various aspects of red blood cell characteristics and are not specific to diagnosing pernicious anemia.
C. Bone Marrow Biopsy. While bone marrow biopsy may be used to diagnose certain types of anemia, it is not the primary diagnostic test for pernicious anemia.
D. Radiologic Studies. Radiologic studies are not typically used in the diagnosis of pernicious anemia.

A. the activity of the bone marrow is depressed. B. red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss. C. the bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes. D. the kidneys fail to produce red blood cells.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The activity of the bone marrow is depressed. Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient numbers of blood cells, including red cells, white cells, and platelets.
B. Red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss. This describes a condition like iron- deficiency anemia, not aplastic anemia.
C. The bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes. Aplastic anemia affects the production of all blood cells, not just lymphocytes.
D. The kidneys fail to produce red blood cells. This describes anemia of chronic kidney disease, not aplastic anemia. In aplastic anemia, the problem lies with the bone marrow, not the kidneys.

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A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about vaginal yeast infections. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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