A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The client is placed on a fetal monitor indicating a regular fetal heart rate of 138/min and no uterine contractions. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4°C (97.6°F). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Initiate IV access.
Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
In the case of a client with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks of gestation, the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Initiating IV access is crucial as it allows for rapid administration of fluids or blood products to address potential hypovolemia and to prepare for the possibility of an emergency cesarean section if needed. The client's low blood pressure and elevated heart rate suggest that she may be experiencing hypovolemia, which can quickly lead to hypovolemic shock if not treated promptly.
Choice B reason:
While obtaining informed consent is important before any surgical procedure, it is not the immediate priority. The priority is to stabilize the client, and consent can be obtained concurrently with other stabilizing actions or by another member of the healthcare team.
Choice C reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is a supportive measure that can be necessary during labor or before surgery to keep the bladder empty, reducing the risk of bladder injury during a cesarean section and monitoring urine output as an indicator of renal perfusion. However, it is not the first priority in the presence of significant vaginal bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas is part of the preoperative procedure for a cesarean section. This action would follow after the client has been stabilized and a decision for surgery has been made.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The indirect Coombs test is used to screen for antibodies in the mother's blood that could potentially cause hemolytic disease in the newborn if they are Rh-positive. A positive result indicates that the mother has developed antibodies that could cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus.
Choice B reason: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Instead, it is used to detect antibodies in the mother's blood. The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies that are already attached to the red blood cells of the newborn.
Choice C reason: The indirect Coombs test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a form of brain damage that can result from very high levels of bilirubin in a baby's blood. It is not directly related to the presence of antibodies detected by the indirect Coombs test.
Choice D reason: The indirect Coombs test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. This is assessed by the direct Coombs test, which checks for antibodies bound to the surface of the newborn's red blood cells, indicating that the immune system is attacking them.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A blood pressure reading of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia, and a reading at or above 140/90 mm Hg is considered elevated and may warrant a preeclampsia diagnosis.
Choice B reason:
The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is another indicator consistent with preeclampsia. Proteinuria, or high levels of protein in the urine, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and can indicate kidney involvement.
Choice C reason:
1+ pitting sacral edema is also consistent with preeclampsia. While some swelling is normal during pregnancy, sudden or excessive swelling (edema) can be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when it occurs in the face, hands, or around the eyes.
Choice D reason:
Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are generally considered to be within the normal range. In preeclampsia, hyperreflexia, or increased reflexes, are more common due to heightened nervous system activity, which would be indicated by a score higher than +2². Therefore, a finding of +1 is inconsistent with preeclampsia and may suggest that reflexes are not as heightened as would typically be expected in this condition.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.